BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (2024)

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150 Questions MCQ Test - BPSC Practice Test- 7

BPSC Practice Test- 7 for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 is part of BPSC (Bihar) preparation. The BPSC Practice Test- 7 questions and answers have been prepared according to the BPSC (Bihar) exam syllabus.The BPSC Practice Test- 7 MCQs are made for BPSC (Bihar) 2024 Exam. Find important definitions, questions, notes, meanings, examples, exercises, MCQs and online tests for BPSC Practice Test- 7 below.

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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 1

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Which of the following sets comprises chemical changes?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 1

  • Burning of paper and digestion of food are examples of chemical change.
  • Chemical changes are permanent in nature and results in the formation of new products.
  • Physical changes are temporary in nature and does not result in the formation of any new product.
  • A chemical change results from a chemical reaction, while a physical change is when matter changes forms but not chemical identity.

Key points:-

  • The five conditions of chemical change: colour change, formation of a precipitate, formation of a gas, odour change, temperature change.
  • A chemical change is a change that brings a change in the chemical properties of matter and a new substance is formed.
  • Growth of a plant, rusting of iron, cooking of food, digestion of food, and burning the candle are chemical changes because here is the chemical composition of the substance changes.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 2

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Deficiency of vitamin ‘X’ causes bleeding of gums. This vitamin is essential for absorption of mineral ‘Y’ and ‘X’ is found in food ‘Z”. Identify X, Y and Z.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 2

  • X-vitamin C, Y-iron, Z-citrus fruits.
  • Deficiency of vitamin C causes bleeding of gums.
  • This vitamin is essential for absorption of mineral iron and vitamin C is found in citrus fruits.
  • Vitamin C is one of the essential vitamins for human and animal.
  • Many methods were developed for the determination of vitamin C such as spectrophotometry, electrophoresis, titration, and high performance liquid chromatography (HPLC).

Key points:-

  • Most experts recommend getting vitamin C from a diet high in fruits and vegetables rather than taking supplements.
  • Fresh-squeezed orange juiceor fresh-frozen concentrate is a better pick than ready-to-drink orange juice.
  • The fresh juice contains more active vitamin C.
  • Drink fresh-frozen orange juice within one week after reconstituting it for the most benefit.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 3

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Rainbow is a natural phenomenon showing-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 3

  • The splitting of sunlight into seven colours is called dispersion of light.
  • And a rainbow is formed by the dispersion of sunlight by water molecules present in the air.
  • The rainbow is one of the most common natural phenomena we can see, but we are still surprised by this ephemeral meteorological phenomenon.
  • As we know, the rainbow is caused by reflection, refraction and dispersion of light in drops of water.

Key points:-

  • The white sunlight consists of visible light to the human eye and the invisible spectrum either below red or above violet.
  • The seven visible colours from outside to inside are just part of it.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 4

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Leaves fall down on the ground due to-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 4

Gravity, also called gravitational, in mechanics, is the universal force of attraction acting between all matter.
Gravity is measured by the acceleration that it gives to freely falling objects.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 5

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Which of the following is also known as the term 'Black Gold'.?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 5

  • It is called black gold simply due to its commercial value.
  • Coal is also black and a common source of fuel but the term ‘black gold’ is not used for coal, it is used for petroleum.
  • Coal is called black gold because it is black in colour and it is costly too.
  • Coal forms the base of many important industries, especially iron and steel industries.

Key points:-

  • Petroleum is refer to as black gold .
  • This name itself is an indication of its important to humans.
  • It’s absolutely hard to find.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 6

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The percentage of methane in natural gas is-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 6

  • The composition of natural gas is chiefly methane (> 90%) with traces of ethane and propane.
  • Methane is a colourless, odourless gas with a wide distribution in nature.
  • It is the principal component of natural gas.
  • Methane is a chemical compound with the chemical formula CH4.
  • It is a group the simplest alkane and the main constituent of natural gas.

Key points:-

  • Methane, colourless, odourless gas that occurs abundantly in nature and as a product of certain human activities.
  • It is only slightly soluble in water.
  • Methane is an important source of hydrogen and some organic chemicals.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 7

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Acne and pimples on the face are due to secretion of-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 7

  • Acne is a skin condition that occurs when your hair follicles become plugged with oil and dead skin cells
  • It causes whiteheads, blackheads, or pimples.
  • Acne is most common among teenagers, though it affects people of all ages.
  • Pimples are raised red spots with a white center that develop when blocked hair follicles become inflamed or infected with bacteria.

Key points:-

  • Cosmetics don’t necessarily worsen acne, especially if you use oil-free makeup that doesn’t close pores.
  • Makeup removes regularly.
  • Eating chocolate or greasy food has little to no effect on acne.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 8

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Six bells start ringing at once, then at intervals of2, 4, 6, 8, 10, 12seconds. How many times will they ring together in 30 minutes?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 8

Given information,
Six bells ring at intervals of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10, and 12 seconds respectively and they start ringing simultaneously.
Take the LCM of 2, 4, 6, 8, 10 and 12 = 120 .
Then bells will ring together after every 120 seconds or 2 minutes
Since bells ring together after every 2 minutes so in 30 minutes it will ring as30/2= 15 times
But at starting on 0 sec they also ring.
Hence, bells will ring 16 times in 30 minutes.
Therefore, option(4) is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 9

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A trader allows a 10% discount on the marked price. How much more than the cost price should he mark on the articles to make a profit of 17 %?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 9

According to the question,
Let the marked price be 100
Discount given on marked price = 10%
⇒Selling price = 100×90/100 = Rs 90
⇒Profit = 17%
⇒Cost price = 90×100/117=1000/13
Hence, profit when marked price is the selling price
⇒100 —1000/13=300/13
⇒Percentage of profit =100×300/13×13/1000
⇒30%
Hence, option(1) is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 10

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In a mixture of 55 kg, the ratio of milk and water is 7:4. What will be the amount of water to be added to make the ratio 7:6?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 10

According to the question,
Initial quantity of milk = (55/11)×7 = 35
And initial quantity of water = (55/11)×4 = 20
After some quantity of water (x) is added to this mixture ,
So ratio of milk : water becomes 7 : 6
⇒35/(20+x) =7/6
⇒210 = 140 + 7x
⇒7x = 70
⇒x = 70/7 litres
⇒x = 10 litres.
Hence, option(2) is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 11

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Five years ago, the average age of four boys was 9 years. Due to the joining of a new boy, the present age of the five of them became 15 years. Accordingly, what is the present age of the new boy?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 11

According to the given information-
Present average age of 4 boys (9+5) = 14 years.
Sum of Present ages of the 4 boys = 14 × 4 = 56 years
Present sum of ages of the 5 boys = 15 × 5= 75 years
Present age of the new boy⇒(75−56) = 19 years
Present age of the new boy = 19 years.
Hence, option(4) is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 12

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A motor car goes from Mumbai to Pune at a speed of 20 km/h and comes back from there at a speed of 30 km/h. What is the average speed of the car for the whole journey?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 12

Formula-Free approach:
Let the distance between Mumbai and Pune be the LCM of 20 and 30 which is 60km.
So, time taken in going from Mumbai to Pune
⇒60/20 = 3 hrs.
Time taken in coming back from Pune to Mumbai
⇒60/30 = 2 hrs.
Now,
Average speed = Total Distance/Total time taken⇒(60+60)/(3+2) = 120/5
⇒24km/hr
Formula Approach:
For two equal distances, formula is:
Average Speed = 2×(a×b)/(a+b)
Where a and b are the speeds during each distance.
Now, applying values from given question:
Average Speed = 2×20×30/(20+30)
⇒1200/50 = 24km/hr
Hence, option(3) is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 13

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Which city of India has recently been included in Time magazine's list of the world's greatest places for 2022 ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 13

India’s first UNESCO World Heritage City, Ahmedabad and Kerala has been included in the list of the "World's 50 Greatest Places of 2022" by Time Magazine.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • Both these places in India have been selected as '50 Extraordinary Places to Visit'.
  • Time magazine described Kerala as one of the most beautiful states in India with spectacular beaches and lush backwaters, temples and palaces.
  • Time magazine described Ahmedabad as a city that "represents ancient sites and contemporary innovations" making it a "Mecca for cultural tourism".
  • Gandhi Ashram, Gujarat Science City and Navratri festival, located on the banks of the Sabarmati river, have been given special mention in Time magazine.
  • Apart from Ahmedabad and Kerala, other cities in the world that figure in the top 50 list include Seoul, Buhan in Bali, Great Barrier Reef in Australia.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 14

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Artery leaving from the left ventricle from the heart is _________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 14

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (15)

KEY POINTS:-

  • The aorta begins at the top of the left ventricle the heart's muscular pumping chamber.
  • The aortic arch curves over the heart and transports the oxygenated blood to the head, neck, and arms.
  • The pulmonary artery provides deoxygenated blood to both lungs.
  • The inferior or posterior vena cava carries the deoxygenated blood from the lower part of the body into the right atrium of the heart.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 15

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In Which year the World Environment Day first celebrated-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 15

World Environment Day:

  • The first World Environment Day was celebrated on 5 June 1973.
  • The World Environment Day is focused on ecosystem restoration and its theme is “Reimagine. Recreate. Restore
  • ”Ecosystem restoration means preventing, halting and reversing this damage – to go from exploiting nature to healing it

Key Points:

  • celebration, under the slogan “Only One Earth” took place in 1974.
  • The Ramsar Convention on Wetlands of International Importance Especially as Waterfowl Habitat is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.
  • It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands.
  • It is named after the city of Ramsar in Iran, where the convention was signed in 1971.

The Ramsar Convention works closely with six other organisation known as international organization partners (IOPs). These are:

  • Bird Life International
  • International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)
  • International Water Management Institute (IWMI)
  • Wetlands International
  • WWF International
  • Wildfowl & Wetlands Trust (WWT)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 16

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Metal which is soft

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 16

Sodium is a chemical element with the symbol Na and atomic number 11.

  • It is a soft, silvery-white, highly reactive metal.
  • Sodium is an alkali metal, being in group 1 of the periodic table.
  • Sodium attracts water, and a high-sodium diet draws water into the bloodstream, which can increase the volume of blood and subsequently your blood pressure.

Key points:-

  • Sodium is a type of metal that is very reactive.
  • Since it’s so reactive, sodium is never found free in nature.
  • Sodium chloride is commonly referred to as table salt.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 17

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Which of the following is not a type of silk?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 17

  • Mulberry silk, tasar Silk, and mooga silk are the varieties of silk produced by different silkworms whereas moth silk is not a variety of silk.
  • Mulberry silk, Tasar Silk and Mooga silk are three varieties of silk produced by different silkworms.
  • The larva (or caterpillar) of a silk moth which produces silk is called silkworm. Silk is a natural protein fibre which can be used as a textile fibre.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (19)

Key points:

  • It is one of the important animal fibres obtained from silkworm.
  • The different types of silk are produced by different types of silkworms.
  • It can be differentiated on the basis of lustre and texture.
  • Few examples are kosa, tassar, mooga, etc. They are produced by various types of silkmoths. One of the common types is the mulberry silkmoth.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 18

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Which of the following is a way to use water economically?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 18

  • Drip irrigation system delivers water to the crop using a network of mainlines, sub-mains and lateral lines with emission points spaced along their lengths.
  • Each dripper/emitter, orifice supplies a measured, precisely controlled uniform application of water, nutrients, and other required growth substances directly into the root zone of the plant.
  • Water and nutrients enter the soil from the emitters, moving into the root zone of the plants through the combined forces of gravity and capillary.
  • In this way, the plant’s withdrawal of moisture and nutrients are replenished almost immediately, ensuring that the plant never suffers from water stress, thus enhancing quality, its ability to achieve optimum growth and high yield.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (21)
Key points:-

  • Unlike surface and sprinkler irrigation, drip irrigation only wets part of the soil root zone.
  • This may be as, low as 30% of the volume of soil wetted by the other methods. The wetting patterns which develop from dripping water onto the soil depend on discharge and soil type.
  • Figure 64 shows the effect of changes in discharge on two different soil types, namely sand and clay.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 19

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Also known as cattle plague “Rinderpest” disease, which was recently eliminated was caused by which among the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 19

Rinderpest– also known as cattle plague was a disease caused by the rinderpest virus which primarily infected cattle and buffalo.
How and When this disease was eradicated-

  • The virus spread via droplets, so that animals got infected by inhaling sick animals’ breath, secretions or excretions.
  • Rinderpest was a so-called dead-end disease for wild herds as their low population density inhibited the disease spread.
  • The development of a potent vaccine in 1960, the dead-end in wild herds played an important role in achieving the disease eradication in 2011.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (23)
The most important thing-

  • It is the first and until today the only animal disease to be eradicated.
  • Infected animals suffered from symptoms- such as fever, wounds in the mouth, diarrhea, discharge from the nose and eyes, and eventually death.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 20

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Which of the following instruments is used to detect the presence of electricity in a circuit?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 20

The galvanometer is used to detect the presence of electricity in the circuit.
IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • Both the direction and magnitude of the electric current are shown by the instrument.
  • The SI unit of a galvanometer is ampere per division.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 21

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How many members of Rajya Sabha are nominated by the President?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 21

The maximum number of members of the Rajya Sabha is 250, out of which 238 are elected and 12 are nominated by the President of India.
Rajya Sabha

  • The Rajya Sabha or the Council of States is the upper house of the bicameral Parliament of India.
  • The Rajya Sabha meets in continuous sessions, and unlike the Lok Sabha, being the lower house of Parliament, the Rajya Sabha, which is the upper house of Parliament, is not subject to dissolution.
  • The term of the members elected to the Rajya Sabha is six years.
  • However, every other year, one-third of the members retire and new admissions take place.
  • Thus, the House is never vacant and hence it is called 'Permanent House'.
  • According to Article 80 of the Indian Constitution, the maximum number of members in the Rajya Sabha was fixed at 250.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 22

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What does NPP stand for?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 22

NPP stands for 'National Population Policy'.
Important Points:-

  • National Population Policy formulated in the year 2000, reaffirms the Government’s commitment towards voluntary and informed choice, target free approach and achievement of replacement level of fertility by simultaneously addressing the issues of contraception, maternal health and child survival.
  • The National Family Planning Programme of the Ministry of Health & Family Welfare is guided by the tenets of the National Population Policy 2000 and oversees its implementation.
  • Under this program the service delivery data is triangulated and further the program is regularly reviewed through annual review meetings, supportive supervision visits, common review missions etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 23

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The gains of the 'Green Revolution' have mainly continued for the crops of ___ ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 23

The beneficial boon of 'Green Revolution' is for wheat and rice crops.
Important Points:-

  • The beginning of the first revolution in India is considered to be from the Green Revolution in 1966-67.
  • Due to this revolution, India became self-dependent in food production. The main contribution in the Green Revolution has been of improved quality seeds.
  • After this revolution, the milk revolution, yellow revolution, round revolution, blue revolution etc. started in India and India became self-dependent in milk, mustard, potato and fish production.

Green Revolution in India:-

  • The government launched an intensive development program in 1960 in selected seven districts from seven states and this program was named Intensive Area Development Program (IADP), which was later defined as India's Green Revolution.
  • The Green Revolution increased the production of wheat, rice and jowar by about 2 to 3 times.
  • M.S. Swaminathan is known as the father of the Green Revolution in India.
  • In the latter part of the Second Five Year Plan, IADP was renamed.
  • New high yielding varieties of wheat were developed by Norman Borlaug and his colleagues and adopted by many countries.

This new 'Agriculture Strategy' was first implemented in India during the Kharif season of 1966 and was named as High Yielding Variety Program (HYVP). This program was introduced as a package because the program mainly depended on regular and adequate irrigation, fertilisers, high yielding varieties of seeds, pesticides.

  • HYVP was limited to only five crops- Wheat, Rice, Jowar, Bajra and Maize.
  • The Green Revolution resulted in a record grain production of 131 million tons in 1978-1979.
  • Due to this revolution, India was established as one of the largest agricultural producers in the world.
  • Between 1947 (when India gained political independence) to 1979, the yield per unit of farmland has improved by more than 30%. During the Green Revolution, there has been an increase in the cropped area of high yielding varieties of wheat and rice.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 24

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Which new airline has received an Air Operator Certificate (AOC) from the Directorate General of Aviation Regulatory (DGCA) to start commercial operations recently?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 24

The country's newest airline Akasa Air has received the Air Operator Certificate (AOC) from aviation regulator Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) on 7 July to start its commercial operations.
Important facts -

  • The AOC Certificate signifies the airline's operational readiness to satisfactorily meet all regulatory and compliance requirements.
  • Under the supervision of DGCA, the airline concluded the process with a number of flights proving to be successfully operated.
  • The airline, backed by stock market investor Rakesh Jhunjhunwala, took delivery of its first Boeing 737 MAX aircraft in India on June 21.
  • Akasa Air is the first airline in India whose end-to-end AOC process was conducted using the government's progressive EGCA digital platform.
  • It will commence commercial operations at the end in July 2022.
  • By the end of the financial year 2022-23, the airline will have 18 aircraft and after that, 12-14 aircraft will be added per year.
  • Last November, Akasa Air announced the order for 72 '737 MAX' aircraft from Boeing.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 25

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Which state government has recently decided to re-join the Prime Minister's Fasal Bima Yojana ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 25

Andhra Pradesh government has decided to re-join the ambitious Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana.

  • IMPORTANT FACTS -
    • The Andhra Pradesh government has taken this decision after talks between Agriculture and Farmers Welfare Minister Narendra Singh Tomar and Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan.
    • Andhra Pradesh has decided to implement PMFBY from the Kharif-2022 season.
    • With this decision, crops of more than 40 lakh farmers of the state will get insurance cover in case of natural calamity.
    • Andhra Pradesh had opted out of PMFBY in 2020 citing high premium prices.
    • Gujarat, Bihar, West Bengal, Telangana and Jharkhand are still out of the scheme due to low claim ratio and financial constraints.

About 'Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana' (PMFBY) -

  • The Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) was launched on 13 January 2016.
  • The scheme provides a comprehensive insurance cover to the farmers in the event of crop failure, which helps in stabilising the income of the farmers.
  • This includes all food and oilseed crops and annual commercial/horticultural crops for which past yield data is available.
  • Central and state governments pay more than 95% of the premium amount, while farmers bear 1.5-5% of the premium amount.
  • A 2% premium will be paid for Kharif crops (Paddy or Rice, Maize, Jowar, Bajra, Sugarcane etc.).
  • For Rabi crops (wheat, barley, gram, lentil, mustard etc.) 1.5% premium will be paid.
  • A 5% premium will be paid for annual commercial and horticultural crops insurance.
  • This scheme was mandatory for farmers who received institutional finance before the year 2020, but by changing it, it has been made voluntary for all farmers.
  • In order to ensure more efficient and effective implementation of the scheme, necessary reforms in PMFBY were made by the Central Government in the Kharif season of the year 2020.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 26

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According to the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, what is the percentage increase in the export of agricultural products in the North-East region during the last six years ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 26

The export of agricultural products to the North-East region has increased by more than 85 percent in the last six years.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • According to the Commerce and Industry Ministry the export has reached over 17 million dollars in 2021-22 from 2.52 million dollar in 2016-17.
  • The major destinations of exports have been Bangladesh, Bhutan, Middle East, UK and European countries.
  • There has been a significant increase in the export of agricultural products from the northeastern states like Assam, Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim and Meghalaya.
  • In the last three years, Agricultural and Processed Food Products Development and Authority (APEDA) has conducted 136 capacity building programs on export awareness in different parts of the North Eastern Region.
  • APEDA organised a conference on Export Potential of Natural, Organic and Geographical Indications (GI) agricultural products in Guwahati on 24 June.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 27

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Asia's largest Onion Mandi is located at

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 27

Asia's largest onion market is located at Lasalgaon in Nashik (Maharashtra) district.

  • Maharashtra is the largest onion producing state.

Asia's largest coriander market is Ramganj Mandi located in Kota district of Rajasthan.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 28

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ARDC is a branch of which of the following bank?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 28

ARDC (Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation) is now a branch of NABARD.
Important facts

  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) set up the Agricultural Refinance Corporation (ARC) in 1963 to work as a refinancing agency in providing medium-term and long-term agricultural credit to support investment credit needs for agricultural development. In 1975, ARC was renamed as Agriculture Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) to give focussed attention to credit offtake, development and promotion of the agricultural sector.
  • In 1975, ARC was renamed as Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation (ARDC) to focus on credit raising, development and promotion of the agricultural sector.
  • Upon its formation in 1982, NABARD took over the functions of the erstwhile Agricultural Credit Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and Credit Cell (RPCC) of RBI and ARDC.
  • The Department of Refinance (DOR) deals with short-term and long-term refinance functions of NABARD.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 29

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When did India's 'Look East' policy start?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 29

The foreign policy adopted by the government of P.V. Narasimha Rao in the nineties, aimed at India's efforts to reach the S.E. It is a policy aimed at expanding large-scale economic and strategic ties with the countries of Asia and balancing China's dominance in the region.
Important facts

  • To recover from the effects of the dissolution of the Soviet Union (at the end of the Cold War, 1991), a strategic partner, India attempted to strengthen ties with the United States and America's allies in South-East Asia.
  • In these efforts, in the year 1992, former Prime Minister of India, P.V. Narasimha Rao introduced the Look East Policy to strategize India's relations with the South-East Asia region and counterbalance the strategic influence of the 'People's Republic of China' as a regional power.
  • The Look East Policy focused on the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and their economic integration.
  • India became a dialogue partner of ASEAN in 1996 and a participant in summit level talks in 2002.
  • In 2012, this relationship turned into a strategic partnership.
  • In 1992, when India started the Look East Policy, India's trade with ASEAN was US$ 2 billion.
  • India is also an active participant in many regional forums like 'East Asia Summit' (EAS), 'ASEAN Regional Forum' (ARF) etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 30

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Where is A.P.J Abdul Kalam Science city being developed in Bihar?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 30

A.P.J Abdul Kalam Science city is being developed near Moinul Haq stadium patna. It is based on scientific principles with exhibition blocks & other blocks.
IMPORTANT FACTS :

  • The Department of Science & Technology (DST) of the State of Bihar is committed to developing a world class Science Centre for Bihar.
  • It will be located on a 20 acre greenfield site.
  • It aims to foster the spirit of curiosity and counter superstition by application of scientific thinking.
  • Dedicated to the people’s president ‘Dr.A.P.J. Abdul Kalam’, it will have also include exhibits on Space Science and Missile Technology.
  • In 2013, Lord Cultural Resources was commissioned to prepare the master plan for the Science City.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 31

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Who painted “Begamo ki Shrabkhori”?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 31

“Begamo ki Shrabkhori” painted by Yamuna Prasad.
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • Patna Kalam is known as Art of male.
  • They are of miniature category and its subject is “common people “.
  • Mahadev Lal painted Gandhari Chitra.
  • Madholal made a painting of Ragini Todi while Sheolal painted “Muslim Nikah”.

OPTIONS EXPLANATION

  • All the above artists are related to Patna Kalam.

CULTURAL ASPECT

  • Patna Kalam is an Indian painting style.
  • It existed in present day Bihar.
  • This Painting Style is also known as company painting or Patna Qulam Painting.
  • Since, this regional painting style developed under the support from British (British East India Company), as a result, this art is known as company painting.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (36)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 32

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Which of the following is not related to the Wahhabi movement ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 32

This movement, centered around Patna, was an Islamic revivalist movement, with an emphasis on condemning any change in the original Islam and returning to its original spirit.
Important Facts

  • The Wahabi movement was led by Syed Ahmed Barelvi.
  • Wahhabi means disciple of Abdul Wahab of Najid (Arab).
  • He appointed four khalifas or spiritual vice-presidents from among those belonging to the Sadiqpur family of Patna .
    • Maulvis Vilayat Ali
    • Inayat Ali
    • Shah Mohammed Hussain
    • Abdullah
  • The movement had been active since the 1830s, but in the wake of the 1857 rebellion, it turned into armed resistance, a jihad against the British.
  • Subsequently, the British branded the Wahhabis as traitors and rebels and launched a massive military campaign against the Wahhabis.
  • After 1870 this movement was completely suppressed.
  • The British also introduced the word "sedition" into the Indian Penal Code 1870 , which outlawed speech that tended to "excite disaffection towards the government established by law in India". Thus this movement marks the beginning of sedition law in India.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 33

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In which year the Kol uprising began?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 33

Kol Rebellion (1832)

  • The Kols were one of the tribes inhabiting the Chhotanagpur area.
  • They lived in complete autonomy under their traditional chiefs but this changed when the British came.
  • Along with the British came the moneylenders and the merchants.
  • The Kols then lost their lands to farmers from outside and also had to pay huge amounts of money in taxes. This led to many becoming bonded labourers.
  • The British judicial policies also caused resentment among the Kols.
  • There was an insurrection in 1831-32 which saw the Kols organise themselves and revolt against the British and the moneylenders.
  • They killed many outsiders and burned houses. This armed resistance went on for two years after which it was brutally suppressed by the British with their superior weaponry.
  • The Kol Rebellion was so intense that troops had to be called in from Calcutta and Banaras to crush it.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 34

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In which year did the Bhumij revolt start ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 34

  • The Bhumij rebellion started in 1832 AD under the leadership of Ganga Narayan. Its influence remained in the areas of Birbhum and Singhbum.
  • The rebellion was the result of the complaints of the Bhumij against the Birbhum (Badabhum) king, police officers, munsifs, salt inspectors, and other dikkus.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 35

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The Highest (longest) Bodh Stupa of the world is located at ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 35

The Highest Bodh Stupa of the world is found in Kesaria of East Champaran dist. of Bihar.
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • it is excavated in 1998 by ASI,its height is 104 Ft.
  • The original Kesariya stupa probably dates to the time of Ashoka (circa 250 BCE), as the remains of a capital of a Pillar of Ashoka were discovered there.
  • Lord Buddha, during his journey from Vaishali to Kushinagar, had spent a night at Kesariya where he reportedly made some historical revelations. These were later recorded in a Buddhist Jataka story.

HISTORICAL POINTS

  • Gautam Buddha was born as Siddhartha as Shuddhodana (head of the Shakya dynasty of the republic) in Lumbini (Nepal) on the day of Vaishakha Purnima in 563 BCE.
  • He lost his mother (Mahamaya) a few days after his birth and was raised by his stepmother Gautami.
  • He had 32 birthmarks on his body and the brahmins had predicted that he would either be a world conqueror or a world renouncer.
  • At the age of 29, Gautama left home and rejected his life of riches and embraced a lifestyle of asceticism, or extreme self-discipline.
  • He died at the age of 80 in 483 BCE at a place called Kushinagara a town in UP. The event is known as Mahaparinibban.
  • The five forms that represent Buddha are:
  • Lotus and Bull – Birth
  • Horse – Renunciation
  • Bodhi Tree – Mahabodhi
  • Dhammachakra Pravartana – First sermon
  • Footprints – Nirvana
  • The three pillars of his teachings are:
  • Buddha – Founder/Teacher
  • Dhamma – Teachings
  • Sangha – Order of Buddhist Monks and Nuns (Upasakas)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 36

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Which Art school is known as women painting school or “Mahilaon ki chitrashaily”?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 36

Madhubani painting is known as the School of Women's Painting or "Mahilaon ki chitrashaily".
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • Madhubani painting has its origins in Mithila region of Bihar.
  • The painting is one of the oldest and most famous Indian art forms which is also practised in Nepal.
  • Traces of Madhubani art can also be noticed in the Ramayana, the Indian epic.
  • It is also known as Mithila or Madhubani art.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 37

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Which of the following places in Bihar has been selected to be developed as an Iconic Tourist Destination?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 37

  • The Central Government has identified 17 major tourist destinations of the country which will be developed as Iconic Tourist Destination.
  • These were also mentioned in the budget of 2018-19.

Important facts:-

  • These 17 tourist destinations have been selected considering their popularity and importance across the country.

These 17 tourist destinations include:-

  • Taj Mahal and Fatehpur Sikri in Uttar Pradesh,
  • Ajanta and Ellora Caves in Maharashtra,
  • Humayun's Tomb,
  • Red Fort and Qutub Minar in Delhi,
  • Colva Beach in Goa,
  • Amber Fort in Rajasthan,
  • Somnath and Dholavira in Gujarat. ,
  • Khajuraho in Madhya Pradesh,
  • Hampi in Karnataka,
  • Mahabalipuram in Tamil Nadu,
  • Kanjiranga in Assam,
  • Kumarakom in Kerala
  • and Mahabodhi in Bihar.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 38

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Consider the following statements:
1. Chinook, Foehn, Sirocco, Harmattan, Loo, etc. are hot while Bora, Mistral, and Blizzard are the major cold local winds.
2. Chinook wind is harmful to cattle farmers
3. Harmattan is also known as "Doctor Wind".
Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 38

AIR-:

  • The movement of air from a high-pressure area to a low-pressure area is called 'wind'.
  • The variation in air pressure is found due to the speed of the winds.
  • When air is heated, it expands and becomes lighter, and rises.
  • Cold air is denser and heavier. That's why it has a tendency to stay down.
  • When the warm air rises, cold air from the surrounding areas comes there to fill the gap. In this way, the wind cycle continues.

IMPORTANT FACTS:
Local Wind-:

  • The specific type of winds that blow (in nature) against the prevailing winds in a particular place is called 'local winds'.
  • These winds blow over a small area at a particular time of the year or day. For example - land and sea breeze.
  • Their sphere of influence is small and they are confined to the lower layers of the troposphere.
  • On the basis of nature, all the local winds of the world are divided into cold and hot local winds.
  • Chinook, Phone, Siraco, Harmattan, Loo, etc. are hot while Bora, Mistral, and Blizzard are the major cold local winds.

Wind Type:
The following types of winds are found on the surface

  • Prevailing Wind,
  • Seasonal Wind and
  • Local Wind.

Prevailing Wind-:

  • The wind which blows from one zone to another throughout the year due to the latitudinal difference of air pressure is called prevailing wind.
  • Examples of prevailing winds are trade winds, westerlies, and polar winds.

Seasonal Wind-:

  • Winds whose direction is found to change with the seasons or time are called Seasonal winds.
  • This class of winds includes monsoon winds, land and ocean breezes.

Local Winds-:

  • Local winds are generated due to the local difference in temperature and pressure.
  • Loo is a better example of local wind.

Important Local Wind-:
Harmattan-:

  • These are dry, dusty winds that blow from the northeast in the Western Sahara region.
  • Harmattan is also called "Doctor Wind" in this region, as it provides relief from the humid tropical winds from the west.
  • It provides relief from the moist air of the west.
  • It is harmful to crops and hinders economic activities like inland river transport.

Foehn wind and Chinook wind-:

  • Both these are dry winds, which are experienced on the lower part of the mountains.
  • Fawn winds circulate in the valleys of the Northern Alps, while Chinook winds are experienced in the US and Canada on the eastern slopes of the Rocky Mountains in winter.
  • Chinook winds are so dry that they are called "snow-eaters".
  • They often cause migraine headaches for the local people.
  • Chinook wind is beneficial for livestock owners, with its arrival the pasture becomes snow-free.
  • The most effect of Fawn wind is in Switzerland, due to its effect, the grape crops are ripe soon.

Sirocco-:

  • Sirocco is a hot, dry, and dusty local wind that blows in the same direction as a dry wind from the Sahara desert over North Africa and crosses the Mediterranean Sea.
  • It picks up moisture from the Mediterranean Sea and causes rainfall in southern Europe.
  • Because they carry red dust over the Sahara, the rain they cause is sometimes called "rain of blood."
  • Sirocco is known by different names in different regions.
  • In Italy it is called Siraco, in Egypt Khamsin, in Libya, Ghibli, Tunisia in Chile, Sisum in the Arabian Desert, in Spain it is called Leves, Madeira and in the Canary Islands.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 39

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Consider the following statements-
1. In winter, the winds blow from north-east to south-west, which is called winter monsoon.
2. According to Ferrel's law, the winds in the Northern Hemisphere turn to their right and in the Southern Hemisphere to their left
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 39

Both the statements are correct.
In winter, the winds blow from north-east to south-west which is called winter monsoon.
According to Ferrel's law, the winds in the Northern Hemisphere turn to their right and in the Southern Hemisphere to their left
IMPORTANT POINTS:

  • In the summer season, the winds blow in the opposite direction, which iscalled the South-West Monsoon or Summer Monsoon.
  • The word monsoon is derived from the Arabic word'Mawsim', which literally means "weather".
  • Monsoon means the change in the direction of the wind during a year according to the seasons.
  • The climate of India is called monsoon climate.
  • India receives northeast monsoon wind (from northeast to southwest) from October to December and southwest monsoon wind (from southwest to northeast) during June-September.
  • The Southwest Monsoon is formeddue to a low-pressure system over the Tibetan Plateau.
  • The northeast monsoon is related to the high-pressure center over the Tibetan and Siberian plateaus.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 40

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Which of the following is not a factor affecting wind?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 40

IMPORTANT FACTS-:
Factors Affecting Wind Motion-:
Wind direction and speed are affected by

  • Pressure Gradient Force
  • Coriolis effect or Coriolis force
  • Centripetal Acceleration
  • Land Friction
  • Gravitational Force of the Earth

Air-:

  • The horizontal movement of air is called wind.
  • Wind is caused by the horizontal difference in atmospheric pressure.
  • As water flows from high pressure areas to low pressure areas, air flows from high pressure areas to low pressure areas.

Pressure Gradient Force-:

  • The difference in the horizontal distribution of atmospheric pressure causes winds to flow from areas of high pressure to areas of low pressure.
  • The rate of change of pressure per unit distance is called the pressure gradient and the force applied by the pressure gradient to drive the winds is known as the pressure gradient force.
  • The greater the pressure gradient and its force, the greater the speed of the wind.

Land Friction-:

  • They cause friction and blockage in the winds of the Earth's surface and affect their speed and direction.
  • Land features such as mountains, plateaus and valleys cause changes in the speed and direction of winds.
  • At an altitude of 2 to 3 km above the Earth's surface, the winds are free from frictional effects and are controlled by the pressure gradient and the Coriolis force.

Ferrel's law-:

  • According to Ferrel's law, the winds in the Northern Hemisphere turn to their right and in the Southern Hemisphere to their left
  • The trade winds in both the hemispheres turn west.
  • The direction of the trade winds in the northern hemisphere is from north-east to south-west and in the southern hemisphere the direction of the trade winds is from south-east to north-west, so these trade winds are called north-east trade winds in the northern hemisphere and in the Southern Hemisphere it is called the South-East trade wind.
  • It is also called the "Coriolis force".

Gravitation Forces of the Earth-:

  • The gravitational force of the eastern is the same at all places.
  • The air pressure is high in the lower layers of the atmosphere and as we move upwards in the atmosphere, the air mass decreases.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 41

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With reference to the islands of Japan, consider the following statements:?
1. The islands of Japan are sequenced from south to north - Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku, and Kyushu.
2. Honshu is the largest island on which the capital Tokyo is located.
3. Shikoku is located east of Kyushu and southeast of Honshu.
Which of the above statements are correct?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 41

The "mainland" of Japan consists of four primary islands:

  • The islands of Japan are in sequence from north to south: Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu.
  • Tokyo is the capital and largest city of Japan.
  • Honshu is the largest island on which the capital Tokyo is located.
  • Japan has more than 4000 small islands, of which more than 430 are inhabited.
  • The Japanese archipelago is located in the Pacific Ocean off the east coast of the continent of Asia.
  • Japan is the largest country without borders in terms of geographical area.

IMPORTANT FACTS-:
Island of Honshu-:

  • Honshu is the largest island.
  • It is also the seventh-largest island in the world.
  • The capital of Japan is located on the island of Honshu.
  • Major cities: Tokyo, Hiroshima, Osaka-Kyoto, Nagoya, Sendai, Yokohama, Niigata
  • Major Mountains: Mount Fuji (Japan's highest point at 12,388 feet [3,776 m]), Mount Kita,
  • Lake Biwa (Japan's largest lake), Mutsu Bay, Inawashiro Lake, Tokyo Bay

Island of Hokkaido-:

  • Hokkaido is the northernmost and second-largest of the main Japanese islands.
  • Major cities: Sapporo, Hakodate, Obiaro, Asahikawa, Obihiro, Kitami, Shire.
  • Major Mountains: Mount Asahi (7,516 feet (2,291 m] highest point on the island), Mount Hakun,

Kyushu Island-:

  • Kyushu, the third largest of Japan's large islands, is southwest of Honshu.
  • The largest city on the island is f*ckuoka.
  • Kyushu is known as the "Land of Fire" because of its series of active volcanoes, which include Mount Kuzu and Mount Aso.
  • Major Cities: f*ckuoka, Nagasaki, Kagoshima
  • Major Mountains: Mount Aso (active volcano), Mount Kuju, Mount Tsurumi,
  • Other prominent geographical features: Kumagawa River (largest on Kyushu), Ebino Plateau,

Island of Shikoku-:

  • Shikoku is the smallest of the four islands and is located east of Kyushu and southeast of Honshu.
  • There are no volcanoes on Shikoku.
  • Shikoku is the home of a Buddhist pilgrimage known around the world.
  • It is one of the oldest pilgrimages in the world.
  • Major city: Matsuyama, Kochi
  • Major Mountains: Mount Sasagamine, Mount Higashi-akaishi,
  • Other Major Geographical Features: Inland Sea, Bingonada Sea, Io-Nada Sea

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 42

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Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of ________.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 42

Uttar Pradesh is the leading producer of sugarcane.
Important facts:

  • The average size of an agricultural holding in the state is 0.76 hectares which is less than the national average of 1.15 hectare.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 43

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Deserts, rain forests, coral reefs and mangroves are features of ______ diversity.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 43

Deserts, rain forests, coral reefs, and mangroves are features of ecological diversity.
Options explanation

  • Genetic Biodiversity refers to the variety of genetic characteristics involved in the genetic makeup of a species, it is the diversity within the species that acts as the major reason for the distinguishing characteristic expressed by each individual.
  • Cultural diversity in remote mountain regions is closely linked to biodiversity, as there is a symbiotic relationship between habitats and cultures, and between ecosystems and cultural identity; indeed, religious rules and rituals often strengthen this relationship and are characterized by a conservation ethic.
  • Species diversity Biodiversity is all the different kinds of life you'll find in one area—the variety of animals, plants, fungi, and even microorganisms like bacteria that make up our natural world. Each of these species and organisms works together in ecosystems, like an intricate web, to maintain balance and support life.
  • Ecological biodiversity is the diversity of ecosystems, natural communities, and habitats. In essence, it's the variety of ways that species interact with each other and their environment.

Important points

  • Biodiversity is the biological variety and variability of life on Earth. Biodiversity is a measure of variation at the genetic, species, and ecosystem levels.

Biodiversity can be categorized into three main types:

  • Genetic Diversity
  • Species Diversity
  • Ecosystem Diversity

Confusing points

  • Biodiversity is measured by two major components: species richness, and species evenness.
  • Species richness- It is the measure of the number of species found in a community.
  • Species evenness- Species evenness is a measure of the relative abundance of the different species making up the richness of an area.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 44

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Kabini, Hemavati and Amaravati are the tributaries of the river-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 44

Kabini, Hemvati and Amravati are tributaries of river Kaveri.
Important information:

  • The Kaveri river originates from the Brahmagiri range of the Western Ghats and reaches the Bay of Bengal south of Cuddalore in Tamil Nadu.
  • Its total length is about 760 km.
  • The main tributaries of Kaveri are Amravati, Bhavani, Hemvati and Kabini.
  • Its basin extends over parts of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
  • It is known as ‘Ponni’ in Tamil, also known as Ganga of the south, and it is the fourth largest river of southern India.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 45

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The Mediterranean Sea is an intercontinental sea that extends from the ______ ocean in the west to Asia in the east and separates Europe from Africa.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 45

The Mediterranean Sea is an intercontinental sea that extends from the Atlantic Ocean in the west to Asia in the east and separates Europe from Africa.

  • The Atlantic Ocean is the second ocean on Earth.
  • This ocean extends from South America, Africa, North America, Europe to the Arctic Sea.

IMPORTANT FACTS
The Indian Ocean

  • It is the third-largest of the world's oceans with an area of about 27, 240, 000 square miles.
  • It accounts for 20% of the earth's surface water.
  • The Indian Ocean borders Australia on the east, Africa on the west, Asia on the north, and Antarctica on the south.

The Pacific Ocean

  • The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest ocean in the world.
  • It is spread between Australia, Asia, America, and Oceania.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 46

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The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution is about which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 46

The 10th Schedule of the Indian Constitution, called the 'Anti-Defection Law', was added in the year 1985 by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
Important information

  • The Indian Constitution has 25 parts, 448 articles and 12 schedules.
  • Originally there were 8 schedules in the Indian Constitution.
  • Later four schedules were included in the Indian Constitution by 4 important Constitutional Amendment Acts.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (52)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 47

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If Panchayat is dissolved, its election should be held within-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 47

  • If Panchayat is dissolved, elections should be held within 6 months.
  • The Ministry of Panchayati Raj looks into all matters relating to the Panchayati Raj and Panchayati Raj Institutions. The ministry is headed by a minister of cabinet rank. The ministry is now headed by Shri Giriraj Singh.
  • Vision: To attain decentralised and participatory local self-government through Panchayati Raj Institutions (PRIs).

IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • After independence, in 1957, 'Balwant Rai Mehta Committee' was formed by the Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) to study the Community Development Program (year 1952) and National Extension Service Program (year 1953).
  • In November 1957, the committee submitted its report, in which it suggested implementing a three-tier Panchayati Raj system – village level, intermediate level and district level.
  • In the year 1958, the National Development Council accepted the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee and on October 2, 1959, the country's first three-tier Panchayat was inaugurated by the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru in Nagaur district of Rajasthan.
  • Through the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments in the year 1993, the three-tier Panchayati Raj system in India got constitutional status.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 48

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Which among the following Parts of the Indian Constitution is related with the special provisions relating to certain classes?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 48

Part XVI of the Indian Constitution related with special provisions relating to certain classes.
IMPORTANT FACTS:
Part XVI contains articles 330 to 342(a).

  • Article 330 : Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 331 : Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the Lok Sabha.
  • Article 332 : Reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in the Legislative Assemblies of the State.
  • Article 333 : Representation of the Anglo-Indian community in the state legislatures.
  • Article 338 : National Commission for Scheduled Castes.
  • Article 338 (a) : National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.
  • Article 338 (b) : National Commission for Backward Classes.
  • Article 341 : Scheduled Castes
  • Article 342 : Scheduled Tribes
  • Article 342 (a) : Socially and Educationally Backward Classes.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 49

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Who among the following has been regarded as the "Spirit of the Constitution"?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 49

'Preamble' has been considered as the 'Soul of the Constitution'.
IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • KM Munshi called Preamble as Horoscope of the Constitution.
  • Thakur Das Bhargava called Preamble as Soul of the Constitution.
  • NA Palkivala called the Preamble Identity card of the Constitution.
  • Whereas Bhimrao Ambedkar has considered the 'right to constitutional remedies' as the "Heart and Soul" of the constitution.
  • The Preamble mentions the basic philosophy and the fundamental political, religious and moral values which are the basis of our constitution.
  • This is the soul of the Constitution.
  • This is the key to the constitution.
  • It is the ornament of the Constitution.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 50

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Who among the following was known as "Lok Nayak"?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 50

Jayaprakara Narayan is known as Lok Nayak. Significantly, Jai Prakash Narayan played an important role in the Quit India Movement of 1942.
IMPORTANT FACTS:

  • Jayaprakash Narayan, popularly known as JP or Lok Nayak, was an Indian independence activist, theorist, socialist and political leader.
  • He was the leader of the opposition against Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in the mid-1970s.
  • Born: 11 October 1902, Sarani
  • Died: 8 October 1979, Patna
  • Party: Janata Party
  • Nickname: JP

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 51

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The World Health Organisation is Headquartered in:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 51

​A probe has been initiated by India's drug regulator after the WHO issued an alert saying cough syrups manufactured by an Indian firm could potentially be linked to the death of children in The Gambia.
Key Points

  • The World Health Organization (WHO) is a specialized agency under United Nations responsible for international public health.
  • It was formed on 7 April 1948.
  • The formation date of the World Health Organization, April 7 is commemorated as World Health Day.
  • The headquarters of the World Health Organisation is in Geneva, Switzerland.
    • The headquarters of the World Health Organisation was designed by Swiss architect Jean Tschumi.
    • It was inaugurated in 1966.
  • The first meeting of the World Health Assembly took place on 24 July 1948.
  • Tedros Adhanom is the 8th and current Director-General of the World Health Organization.
  • As of 2021, the World Health Organization has 194 member states.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 52

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The objective of PM-KUSUM Scheme is

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 52

  • The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy formulated a Scheme ‘Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan' (KUSUM) in 2019.
  • The Scheme consists of three components:
    • The Component-A includes installation of Decentralized Ground Mounted Grid Connected Renewable Power Plants
    • Component-B includes installation of standalone Solar Powered Agriculture Pumps
    • Component-C includes Solarisation of Grid-connected Agriculture Pumps
  • The objective of PM-KUSUM Scheme is to remove farmers' dependence on diesel and kerosene and to link pump sets to solar energy.
  • As per provisions of the PM-KUSUM Scheme, the grid-connected agriculture pumps can be solarised with central and state subsidy of 30% each and farmer’s contribution of 40%.
  • The solar power projects smaller than 500 kW are allowed by States based on techno-commercial feasibility to support small farmers.
  • Besides barren, fallow and agricultural land, solar power plants can also be installed on pastureland and marshy land of farmers.
  • The solar capacity allowed is up to two times the pump capacity in kW and surplus power will be purchased by DISCOM.
  • Since this component was to be implemented on pilot mode, flexibility was given to states for using different models like net-metering, replacing a pump with BLDC pump or any other innovative model as deemed fit by the states.
  • This scheme will lead to lower cost both in terms of lower capital cost and cost of power.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 53

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Who won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Economics for research on banks and financial crises?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 53

  • Ben S. Bernanke, Douglas W. Diamond and Philip H. Dybvig won the 2022 Nobel Prize in Economics for research on banks and financial crises.
  • The Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences is awarded in memory of Alfred Nobel.
  • While Alfred Nobel did not mention the economics prize in his will, the Sveriges Riksbank established the award in 1968.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 54

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Damodaran Committee, sometimes seen in the news is related to

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 54

The government has constituted an expert committee to examine and suggest appropriate measures to address regulatory and other issues to enable scaling up investments by venture capital and private equity investment.
Key Points

  • Finance Ministry said the six-member panel will be headed by former SEBI chairman M Damodaran.
  • The committee will suggest measures to further accelerates investment into start-ups and sunrise sectors.
  • In Budget speech 2022-23, Finance Minister proposed to set up an expert committee to examine and suggest appropriate measures to scale venture capital and private equity investments in India.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 55

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SPARSH initiative sometimes seen in the news is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 55

The Defence Accounts Department signed an MoU with Bank of Baroda and HDFC Bank, to onboard them as Service Centres under the System for Pension Administration (Raksha) (SPARSH) initiative, across more than 14,000 branches throughout India.
Key Points
About System for Pension Administration (Raksha) (SPARSH)

  • It is an initiative of the Ministry of Defence which aims at providing a comprehensive solution to the administration of pensions to the defence pensioners in line with the vision of the government of India of Digital India, Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) and “Minimal Government, Maximum Governance”. Hence, option 4 is correct.
  • It is established with the objective of empowering a Defence Pensioner with regard to his pension account.
  • It will initially cater to the new retirees on the rollout and subsequently be extended to cover the existing defence pensioners.
  • It will receive pension proposals and make payments centrally.
  • This will reduce the grievances of defence pensioners.
  • It will interface with all the stakeholders and provide a single source of truth thereby ensuring transparency, accountability and ease of doing business through information dissemination and simplification of pension processes through Business Process Re-engineering(BPR).
  • It provides the option to the pensioner to use enabled services for quicker processing of his requests and signing of declarations making his experience a truly paperless and hassle-free one

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 56

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The ‘Operation Megh Chakra’, conducted by the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) is related to which of the following?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 56

The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) conducted searches at 59 locations across 20 States and one Union Territory, as part of a pan-India drive against the circulation and sharing of child sexual abuse material.
Key Points

  • The Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) conducted searches at 59 locations across 20 States and one Union Territory, as part of a pan-India drive against the circulation and sharing of child sexual abuse material. Hence, option 3 is correct.
  • The operation code-named “Megh Chakra” was carried out following the inputs received from Interpol’s Singapore special unit based on the information received from the authorities in New Zealand.
  • Last November, the agency launched a similar exercise code named “Operation Carbon”, searching the premises of suspects in 13 States and one Union Territory.
  • The previous operation was conducted at 76 locations. The persons named in the FIRs were booked under the relevant provisions of the IPC and the Information Technology Act, for allegedly being part of the syndicates that uploaded, circulated, sold and viewed such material.
  • The CBI later decided to send requests to several countries for sharing and gathering information under the Mutual Legal Assistance Treaties (MLATs) on those involved in the racket.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 57

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Who has become the first European woman to command the International Space Station (ISS) in September 2022?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 57

  • Italian astronaut Samantha Cristoforetti, in Sept 2022, became the first European woman to command the International Space Station (ISS).
  • The commander is responsible for all tasks performed by the crew members onboard the space station.
  • Cristoforetti, 45, was selected by the European Space Agency in 2009 to become Italy’s first female astronaut.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 58

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Who is the current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 58

  • Muthuvel Karunanidhi Stalin is an Indian Tamil politician serving as the 8th and current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu.
  • He has also served as president of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam party since 28 August 2018.

About DMK

  • Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam is a political party from India, which has a major influence on the state of Tamil Nadu and the union territory of Puduch*erry.
  • Founder- C. N. Annadurai

Recent Update-

  • Tamil Nadu governor Banwarilal Purohit has appointed Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) chief MK Stalin as the chief minister of Tamil Nadu.
  • The 68-year-old is the son of the former five-term Tamil Nadu chief minister, the late M Karunanidhi.
  • The DMK-led alliance won 159 seats, well ahead of the majority mark of 118 seats. The party alone won 133 seats in the election.
  • Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin has announced Rs. 5 lakh assistance for children who lost both their parents due to COVID-19.
    • The state government will bear their educational and hostel fees till graduation.
    • It will also provide Rs. 3 lakh to the children who lost one of their parents.

About state

  • Chief Minister - M.K. Stalin (June 2021)
  • Governor - R. N. Ravi
  • Lok Sabha seats - 39
  • Rajya Sabha seats - 18

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 59

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Who among the following has become the first athlete to win gold in Yogasana at the 36th National Games in October 2022?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 59

  • At the 36th National Games, Pooja Patel of Gujarat has become the first athlete to win gold in Yogasana.
  • Pooja won the gold medal in the traditional Yogasana category.
  • Yogasana is one of the five sports to be played at the National Games in 2022 for the first time.
  • This Indian indigenous sport made its debut at the Khelo India University Games in early 2022.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 60

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What was the objective of Mission Indradhanush, a program run under the National Health Mission?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 60

Mission Indradhanush:

  • It has been started by the 'Union Ministry of Health, Government of India for the vaccination of all children.
  • It was launched on the occasion of Good Governance Day (25 December 2014).
  • It displays the seven colors of the rainbow and aims to vaccinate those children by 2020.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 61

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The Sundarbans Reserve Forest (SRF) which is adjacent to India's Sundarbans National Park is located in which neighboring country?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 61

Sundarbans Reserve Forest (SRF)

  • The Sundarbans Reserve Forest in the southwest of Bangladesh is the largest contiguous mangrove forest in the world.
  • It is situated between the river Baleswar in the east and the harinbanga in the west, adjoining to the Bay of Bengal.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 62

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Who among the following is the author of "The Young and the Restless: Youth and Politics in India"?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 62

  • Gurmehar Kaur is the author of "The Young and the Restless: Youth and Politics in India".
  • Gurmehar Kaur is a 22-year-old social activist.
  • The book contains the journey of eight youth leaders spread over eight chapters.
  • The eight leaders are - Omar Abdullah, Sachin Pilot, Sowmya Reddy, Jignesh Mevani, Shehla Rashid, Aaditya Thackeray, Madhukeshwar Desai and Raghav Chadha.
  • The book extensively talks about the many facets of the 2014 Lok Sabha elections.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 63

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Who is known as rocket women of India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 63

  • Dr. Ritu Karidhal Srivastava is an Indian scientist.
  • She is working with the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
  • She was a Deputy Operations Director to India's Mars orbital mission, Mangalyaan.
  • She is known as a "Rocket Woman" of India.
  • She was born in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.

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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 64

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The Nastaliq script belongs to which of the following language?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 64

  • Nastaliq is the core script of the post-Sassanid Persian writing tradition and is equally important in the areas under its cultural influence.
  • Nastaliq is amongst the most fluid calligraphy styles for the Arabic script.
  • It has short verticals with no serifs and long horizontal strokes.
  • It was developed in Iran in the 14th and 15th centuries.
  • It is characterized by a tendency to slope downward from right to left and used mainly for Persian poetical writings and in Urdu and Malay manuscript.
  • Since both Persian and Urdu languages have the Nastaliq script, Option 5 is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 65

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Mahavibhasa, an encyclopaedia of Buddhist philosophy is the work of which Buddhist Council?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 65

Mahavibhasa:

  • It is also known as Abhidharma-Mahavibhasa.
  • It is a treatise on the Sarvastivada Abhidharma.
  • It contains a huge array of materials.
  • This includes the discussion of basically every doctrinal issue of the day.
  • It was composed in the ancient Kashmiri region of northern India sometime prior to 656 CE. during the 4th Buddhist council. Hence, option 4 is correct
  • It was written by Vasumitra, it's also linked to the Samkhya and Vaisheshikha philosophies of Hinduism, apart from Buddhism

Buddhist Council and its Important Events:
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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 66

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The Genealogy of the Pushyabhuti dynasty begins with the name of which of the following Kings?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 66

  • The Genealogy of the Pushyabhuti dynasty begins with the name King Naravardhana.
  • After the decline of the Gupta Empire (3rd-century CE-6th century CE) in the 6th century CE in northern India, the Pushyabhuti Dynasty (c. 500 CE-647 CE) grew.
  • Also known as the Vardhana or Pushpabhuti Dynasty, the core area of their kingdom was situated in what is now the state of Haryana in India with the capital at Sthanishvara or Thaneshvara (present-day Thanesar), and later at Kanyakubja (modern-day Kannauj, Uttar Pradesh state).
  • Its last king, Emperor Harshavardhana or Harsha (r. 606-647 CE), was the most notable king of this dynasty.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 67

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The Slave dynasty was also called the Mamluk dynasty, they ruled Delhi from A.D. 1206 to 1290. Which of the following reign of ruler is NOT correctly matched?
BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (76)

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 67

  • The Slave dynasty -
  • The Slave dynasty was also called the Mamluk dynasty. Mamluk was the Quranic term for slaves.
  • The Slave dynasty ruled Delhi from A.D. 1206 to 1290.

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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 68

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Who among the following rulers issued "Infallibility Decree"?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 68

  • Akbar rose to fame in the pages of history due to his religious policies.
  • Various factors were responsible for his religious ideas.
  • The most important among them were his early contact with the Sufi saints and the teachings of his tutor Abdul Latif, his marriage with Rajput women, his association with intellectual Giants like Sheikh Mubarak and his two illustrious sons Abul Faizi and Abul Fazal and his ambition to establish an Empire in Hindustan.
  • He disliked the interference of the Muslim ulemas in political matters. Hence in 1579, he issued the "infallibility decree" by which he asserted his religious powers.
    • Shaikh Mubarik who had come to the court on business was liberal-minded and independent in his views, had suffered at the hands of Makhdum-ul-Mulk.
      • He stated that according to Islamic law, if there was a difference of opinion between the jurists, the Muslim ruler had the authority and the right to choose any one view, his choice being decisive.
      • He drew up a brief but important document, the arguments of which were supported by quotations from the Holy Quran and traditions of the Prophet.
      • The document has been referred to as the Mahzarnama "Infallibility Decree of 1579," with the implication that it gave Akbar unlimited powers in both the spiritual and temporal spheres.
  • But the limitations laid down in the declaration of 1579 were not observed by Akbar, and in practice, it became an excuse for the exercise of unrestrained autocracy.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 69

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Which of the following was not the reason for the revolt of 1857?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 69

  • "India’s First War of Independence" and "Sepoy Mutiny" are some of the names of the revolt of 1857
  • On 10 May 1857, The revolt began at Meerut as a sepoy mutiny.
  • The revolt was initiated in the Bengal Presidency against the British officers by sepoys.
  • The introduction of the "Enfield rifle" was the immediate cause for the Revolt.
  • Indian sepoys believed that the cartridge was greased with made from cow fat which is used before loading the gun.
  • Factors responsible for the cause of the 1857 revolt are:
    • The passing of the General Services Establishment Act 1856 abolished allowances and made it mandatory for the sepoys to serve anywhere in the British Empire.
    • British Government passed the "Religious Disabilities Act 1850" which allows Hindus to convert to Christianity to inherit their ancestral measures.
    • The promotion of Christian Missionaries created fear among Indians that they would convert all of them to Christianity.
    • The British replaced the Brown Bess with Enfield Rifle using bullets containing Beef and Pig fat was one of the immediate reasons for the cause of 1857 revolt.
    • English-language education was actively promoted. After 1830, the Company allowed Christian missionaries to function freely in its domain and even own land and property.
    • In 1850, a new law was passed to make a conversion to Christianity easier. This law allowed an Indian who had converted to Christianity to inherit the property of his ancestors. Many Indians began to feel that the British were destroying their religion, their social customs and their traditional way of life.
    • The Abolition of Sati, legalizing widow remarriage and promotion of education among girls were considered as undue interference in the social customs of India.
  • However, at the time of the Revolt, there was not a complete understanding of the independence or nationalist feeling and people were not fighting for the democratic setup they announce Bhadur Shah Zafar (Mughal empire at that period of time) their leader.
  • Hence, option 2nd is not correct.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 70

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The program of Swadeshi and Boycott against the partition of Bengal was visualized by?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 70

The Swadeshi movement

  • It started with the partition of Bengal by the Viceroy of India, Lord Curzon in 1905 and continued up to 1911.
  • It was the most successful of the pre-Gandhian movement. Its chief architect was Aurobindo Ghosh. Hence, Option 1 is correct.
  • A Boycott Resolution was passed in Calcutta City Hall on August 7, 1905, where it was decided to boycott the use of Manchester cloth and salt from Liverpool.
  • In the district of Barisal, the masses adopted this message of a boycott of foreign-made goods, and the value of the British cloth sold there fell sharply.
  • Bande Mataram became the boycott and Swadeshi movement theme song.
  • Among the movement's various forms of struggle, it was the boycott of foreign-made goods that encountered the greatest visible success on the practical and popular level.
  • Boycott and public burning of foreign clothes, picketing of shops selling foreign goods, all became common in remote corners of Bengal as well as in many major cities and towns across the country.
  • Another form of mass mobilization widely used by the Swadeshi movement was the corps of volunteers (samitis).
  • Ashwini Kumar Dutt, a school teacher, set up the Swadesh Bandhab Samiti in Barisal was the best-known volunteer organization of all of them.
  • The Shivaji and Ganapati festivals in Western India (Maharashtra) were organized by Lokmanya Tilak to spread the swadeshi message and boycott movements among the masses.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 71

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In which of the following cities is the famous Jallianwala Bagh located?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 71

The Jallianwala Bagh massacre:

  • It is also known as the Amritsar massacre.
  • It happened on April 13, 1919, when Acting Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered British Indian Army troops to fire their rifles at a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab. Hence, Option 2 is correct.
  • The Asian Awards honoured the Jalianwala Bagh Martyrs with the prestigious Founders Award in April 2019.
  • Colonel Reginald Edward Harry Dyer was a Bengal Army general.
  • His military career started to serve briefly in the regular British Army before being transferred to serve with India's presidential armies.
  • He was responsible as a temporary brigadier-general for the Amritsar massacre at Jallianwala Bagh.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 72

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______ was Mahatma Gandhi's first successful satyagraha in India.
A. Kheda
B. Bardoli
C. Champaran
D. Salt march

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 72

Champaran was Mahatma Gandhi's first successful satyagraha in India.

  • The Champaran Satyagraha was the combination of elements of extra-constitutional struggle as well as the employment of moral force against an adversary, an exemplar of the rule of law; and the use of compromise as a gambit.
  • It is marked as India’s First Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi to protest against the injustice meted out to tenant farmers in the Champaran district of Bihar.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 73

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In which year, Second Round Table Conference was held?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 73

  • The Second Round Table Conference was held in London from 7 September 1931 to 1 December 1931.
  • Gandhi represented Indian National Congress and Sarojini Naidu represented Indian women.
  • In this conference, Gandhi and Ambedkar differed on the issue of separate electorates for the untouchables.
  • The second round table conference was deemed a failure because of the many disagreements among the participants.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 74

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Quit India Movement was launched in response to

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 74

Cripps mission:​

  • The Cripps mission was headed by Sir Stafford Cripps and was sent to India in March 1942 to secure full cooperation from Indians in World War 2.
  • However, after a lot of negotiations, the mission proved to be a failure as the offers proposed by it were rejected by Congress as well as Muslim leaders, and that led to the launch of the Quit India Movement.
  • As part of this mission, Cripps proposed devolution and distribution of power from the British to an elected Indian legislature in return for full cooperation from India during the war.
  • The mission failed as the proposal was rejected by the two major parties.
  • As a result, on 8th August 1942, the All India Congress Committee headed by Mahatma Gandhi launched the Quit India Movement, demanding the end of British rule in India.

Important Points
Quit India movement:

  • The famous Quit India Movement is also known as the 'August Movement'.
  • The All-India Congress Committee proclaimed a mass protest demanding what Gandhi called "an orderly British withdrawal" from India.
  • It was for the determined, which appears in his call to Do or Die, issued on 8 August at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Mumbai in 1942.
  • Most of the prominent Congress leaders were imprisoned in the initial days of the Quit India Movement.​
  • Slogan attached to the movement - Do or Die.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 75

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Which of the following pair is incorrectly matched?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 75

  • The Kol rebellion was an indigenous revolt by the Kol people of the Chota Nagpur region in 1829-39.
    • The rebel Kols were under the leadership of Buddhu Bhagat, Madara Mahato, Joa Bhagat, and others. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
    • The rebellious tribals are treated as bandits by British historiography.
  • The Santhal rebellion (also known as the Santhal rebellion or the Santhal Hool), was a rebellion in present-day Jharkhand, Eastern India against both the British East India Company (BEIC) and the zamindari system by the Santhal.
    • It started on 30 June 1855, and on November 10, 1855, martial law was proclaimed by the East India Company which lasted until January 3, 1856, when martial law was suspended and the rebellion was eventually suppressed by the Presidency armies.
    • The rebellion was led by the four Murmu Brothers - Sidhu, Kanhu, Chand and Bhairav. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  • Munda Rebellion is one of the prominent 19th century tribal rebellions in the subcontinent.
    • Birsa Munda led this movement in the region south of Ranchi in 1899-1900. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
    • The Ulgulan, meaning 'Great Tumult', sought to establish Munda Raj and independence.
  • The Chero tribe of Palamu revolted under the leadership of Bhukhan Singh in 1800 AD against the high tax collection and re-acquisition of sub-dependent pattas. Hence, pair 4 is correctly matched.
    • In suppressing it, the British resorted to deceit and cunning. As a result of this rebellion, in 1809, the British Government formed the Zamindari Police Force to maintain peace and order in Chotanagpur.
    • In 1814, under the guise of the auction of Palamu Pargana, the British captured it and handed over the responsibility of governance to Raja Ghanshyam Singh of Bhardev.
    • In 1817, he revolted against this conspiracy of the British by ensuring tribal cooperation, but this too was suppressed. This rebellion was suppressed by Colonel Jones.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 76

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The book 'India Wins Freedom' was written by :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 76

The book 'India Wins Freedom' was written by Abul Kalam Azad. The book gives a first-hand account of the Indian freedom struggle. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
Important Points
Abul Kalam Azad -

  • He was one of the leaders of the Indian independence movement against British rule in the first half of the 20th century.
  • He was born in Mecca, Saudi Arabia.
  • Azad became active in journalism when he was in his late teens, and in 1912 he began publishing a weekly Urdu-language newspaper in Calcutta, Al-Hilal (“The Crescent”).
  • He joined the Indian National Congress and galvanized India’s Muslim community through an appeal to pan-Islamic ideals.
  • He was particularly active in the short-lived Khilafat movement.
  • He supported Gandhi during the Non-cooperation movement.
  • He presided over the congress session in 1923 and became the youngest congress president.
  • He Opposed the two-nation theory of Jinnah.
  • Azad was a member of the Constitution Assembly.
  • He later became the first Union minister of education.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 77

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Which planet rotates on its axis from east to west?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 77

  • Venus spins on its axis from east to west while Uranus is tilted so far over, it's virtually spinning on its side.
  • Our planet and all others rotate from west to east.
  • Regarding Venus, scientists have hypothesized that it once rotated counter-clockwise, slowed to the point of becoming practically static, and then began to rotate clockwise as it does today.
  • This could account for Venus's current extremely slow rotation rate, which takes 243 Earth days to complete but only 225 to orbit the Sun.
  • According to astronomers, the planet's rotation could have been reversed by a combination of the Sun's strong gravitational force on Venus' thick atmosphere, the resulting atmospheric tides, and tidal pushes from other planets.
  • This idea of tidal torques is one of the most well-established explanations for Venus' retrograde rotation, along with a planetary collision.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 78

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In which region of the world 'Roaring Forties' flow?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 78

Planetary wind belts:

  • Planetary winds can be defined as the winds that flow from a High-pressure belt to a Low-pressure belt.
  • There are three types of planetary winds such as the Trade winds, Westerlies, and Easterlies.
  • The planetary wind that falls in the category of Westerlies is named Roaring forties, Furious Fifties, and Shrieking sixties.
  • These winds are found in the Southern Hemisphere.

Key Points
Roaring Forties:

  • The Roaring Forties are extremely powerful westerly winds that blow in the Southern Hemisphere between latitudes 40° and 50°.
  • These gale-force, west-to-east currents are the result of the combination of three variables: warm air movements, the Earth's rotation, and the near absence of relevant landmasses.
  • Warm air near the equator rises and tends to move toward the North and South Poles, where temperatures are much lower and less heated by the sun. As it travels south of the equator - and pushed by cooler winds - the wind starts accelerating because it does not encounter obstacles serving as windbreaks.
  • With the help of the rotation of the Earth, air deflects south and morphs into high winds that circle the South Pole. They are only interrupted by Tasmania, Central and South New Zealand, and South America's Cape Horn. Wellington, the capital of New Zealand, is also known as "Windy Welly" because it is one of the few cities located in these turbulent latitudes.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 79

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Which Strait divides India and Sri Lanka?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 79

  • Palk Strait is a strait between the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Mannar district of the Northern Province of Sri Lanka.
  • It connects the Bay of Bengal in the northeast with the Palk Bay and then with the Gulf of Mannar in the southwest.
  • The strait is named after Robert Palk.

Important Points

  • A Strait is a narrow channel of the sea joining two larger bodies of water.
  • It most commonly refers to a channel of water that lies between two landmasses.

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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 80

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Zoji La pass connects

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 80

  • Zoji La is a mountain pass located in the Himalayas in Ladakh.
  • Zoji La connects Srinagar and Leh.
  • It connects the Kashmir Valley to its west with the Dras and Suru valleys to its northeast and the Indus valley further east.
  • Zoji La pass is the lifeline that keeps the people of Ladakh in touch with the rest of the world.
  • The elevation of Zoji La is 3,528m (11,575ft) above sea level.
  • It is one of the most treacherous passes in the world.
  • Zojila tunnel project was launched in 2018.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 81

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Which is the largest Shipyard in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 81

  • India’s largest commercial shipbuilder is Cochin Shipyard Ltd (CSL).
  • It is the largest shipbuilding and maintenance facility in India.
  • It is located in the port-city of Kochi, in the state of Kerala, India.

Key Points

  • Cochin Shipyard was incorporated in 1972 as a Government of India company.
  • MV Rani Padmini in 1981 was the first ship to roll out of this shipyard.
  • Currently, the yard is building the warship INS Vikrant the first aircraft carrier of the Indian Navy to be designed and built in India.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 82

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Which one of the following states is a leading producer of diamonds in India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 82

  • Madhya Pradesh is the only state in India that produces diamonds.
  • Panna in Madhya Pradesh is famous for diamond mining in India.
  • Panna is famous by the name of 'The City of Diamonds'.
  • Since 2021, only a 77.72-carat diamond has been discovered in Panna, Madhya Pradesh.
  • For almost 3000 years, India was the world's only supplier of diamonds until diamond resources were discovered in Brazil and South Africa.
  • Madhya Pradesh is the second-largest Indian state by area.
  • Until 2000, when the southeastern Chhattisgarh region was declared a distinct state, Madhya Pradesh was India's largest by area.
  • Madhya Pradesh is rich in mineral resources and contains India's greatest diamond and copper reserves.
  • More than a third of Madhya Pradesh's land is covered with forest.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 83

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Which of the following is a Unitary feature of the government?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 83

Except Option 2, others are Federal features. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Key Points
Unitary features

  • Union of States
  • Power to form new States and to change existing boundaries
  • Unequal Representation in the Legislature
  • Single Constitution
  • Single citizenship
  • Emergency provisions
  • All India Services

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 84

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In which case Supreme Court propounded the Basic Structure Doctrine for the first time?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 84

The doctrine of the basic structure holds that there is a basic structure to the Indian Constitution, and the Parliament of India cannot amend the basic features.

  • Kesanvnda Bharati vs State of Kerala case, the Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.
  • Supreme court held that Parliament cannot take the power of judicial review.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 85

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As per the Budget Estimates of 2022-23, the following are some of the important sources of tax receipts for the Union Government:
1. Corporation Tax
2. Union Custom Duties
3. Goods and Services Tax
4. Union Excise Duties
Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the aforesaid tax receipts?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 85

Budget estimates for 2022-23:

  • Government receipts (excluding borrowings) are estimated to be Rs 22,83,713 crore, an increase of 4.8% over the revised estimates of 2021-22.
  • The gap between these receipts and the expenditure will be plugged by borrowings, budgeted to be Rs 16,61,196 crore, an increase of 4.4% over the revised estimate of 2021-22.
  • Gross tax revenue is budgeted to increase by 9.6% over the revised estimates of 2021-22, which is lower than the estimated nominal GDP growth of 11.1% in 2022-23.
  • This is mainly on account of a 15% decrease in excise duties. Other taxes are estimated to rise faster than nominal GDP.
  • The net tax revenue of the central government (excluding states’ share in taxes) is estimated to be Rs 19,34,771 crore in 2022-23.
  • Tax Receipts:
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (97)
  • Hence, the correct sequence is Goods and Services Tax > Corporation Tax > Union Excise Duties > Union Custom Duties.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 86

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The Judges of the Supreme court retire at the age of

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 86

The constitution has not fixed the tenure of the judges of the Supreme court however it makes the following provisions in this regard:

  • She/He holds the office until she attains the age of 65 years.
  • Any question regarding her/his age is to be determined by an authority so provided by the Parliament.
  • She/He can resign by writing to the President.
  • She/He can be removed from her/his office by the President on the recommendation of the Parliament.

​​Thus, the Judges of the Supreme court of India retire at the age of 65 years.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 87

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Who was appointed as the Secretary of the 15th Finance commission?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 87

The Fifteenth Finance Commission :

  • It was constituted on 27 November 2017 against the backdrop of the abolition of the Planning Commission (as also of the distinction between Plan and non-Plan expenditure) and the introduction of the goods and services tax (GST).
  • N.K. Singh - Chairman of 15th Finance Commission of India
  • Arvind Mehta - Secretary.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 88

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Under which one of the following Articles is the formation of Finance Commission laid down?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 88

The correct answer is 'Article 280'.

  • President of India appointed the Financial Commission every five years.
  • Under A 281- President lay recommendations of the Finance Commission before each house of Parliament.
  • Composition- One Chairman and Four other members.
  • Its recommendations are advisory in nature.
  • Functions of FC-
    • Net tax proceeds distribution between Centre and States.
    • To make a grant in aid principles to States out of Consolidated Fund of India.
    • Provisions for resource allocations for Panchayats and Municipalities.
    • As per the Code of Civil Procedure 1908, the FC has all the powers of a Civil Court.

Important Points

  • First Financial Commission was formed in 1951 under Chairman KC Neogy.
  • Second Financial Commission was formed in 1956 under Chairman K Santhanam.
  • The latest 15th Financial Commission was formed in 2017 under Chairman NK Singh.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 89

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Among the agricultural commodities exported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest exports in terms of value for the FY 2020-21?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 89

  • Agricultural exports have jumped by 43.4 per cent to ₹16,229.3 crores during 2020.
  • Export Statistics in respect of agricultural products are:
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (102)
  • Hence, Option 2 is the correct answer.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 90

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Which of the following statements are not correct with respect to the Atal Innovation Mission (AIM)?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 90

Atal Innovation Mission (AIM):

  • The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country. Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • AlM's objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME, and industry levels.
  • To enable a vibrant ecosystem of innovation, AIM is promoting active collaboration between Government, Academia, Industry, Individuals, and Societal focused NGOs. Hence statement 3 is correct.
  • The Atal Innovation Mission has the following two core functions:
    • Entrepreneurship promotion through Self-Employment and Talent Utilization, wherein innovators would be supported and mentored to become successful entrepreneurs. Hence statement 2 is correct.
    • Innovation promotion: to provide a platform where innovative ideas are generated.
  • To promote a creative, innovative mindset in schools. At the school level, AIM is setting up state-of-the-art Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL) in schools across all districts across the country. Hence statement 4 is incorrect.
  • At the university, NGO, SME, and Corporate industry levels, AIM is setting up world-class Atal Incubators (AICs) that would trigger and enable the successful growth of sustainable startups in every sector /state of the country.

Important Points
Atal Tinkering Labs (ATL):

  • ATL is a state-of-the-art space established in a school with a goal to foster curiosity and innovation in young minds, between grade 6th to 12th across the country through 21st-century tools and technologies such as the Internet of Things, 3D printing, rapid prototyping tools, robotics, miniaturized electronics, do-it-yourself kits and many more.
  • The aim is to stimulate a problem-solving innovative mindset within the children of the ATL and nearby communities.
  • To date, AIM has selected 10,000 schools in 680+ districts of the country for the establishment of ATLs.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 91

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The first estimation of poverty in India was made by :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 91

The first estimation of poverty in India was made by Lakdawala Committee.
Key Points
Lakdawala Committee

  • The committee was constituted in the year 1993 and chaired by Professor D T Lakdawala.
  • Till as recently as 2011, the official poverty lines were based entirely on the recommendations of the Lakdawala Committee of 1993.
  • According to the Lakdawala Committee, a poor is one who cannot meet these average energy requirements.
  • This committee defined the poverty line on the basis of household per capita consumption expenditure.
  • The committee used CPI-IL (Consumer Price Index for Industrial Laborers) and CPI- AL (Consumer Price Index for Agricultural Laborers) for estimation of the poverty line.
  • In the earlier estimates, both health and education were excluded because they were expected to be provided by the states.
  • The method of calculating poverty included first estimating the per capita household expenditure at which the average energy norm is met, and then, with that expenditure as the poverty line, defining as poor as all persons who live in households with per capita expenditures below the estimated value.
  • The fallout of the Lakdawala formula was that the number of people below the poverty line got almost double.
  • The number of people below the poverty line was 16 percent of the population in 1993-94. Under the Lakdawala calculation, it became 36.3 percent.
  • This poverty line was set such that anyone above them would be able to afford 2400 and 2100 calories worth of consumption in rural and urban areas respectively in addition to clothing and shelter.
  • These calorie consumptions were derived from the YK Alagh committee only.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 92

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Consider the following pairs:
BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (106)
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 92

Vienna Convention

  • ​It was adopted in the year 1985 and entered into force in 1988.
  • It acts as a framework for the international efforts to protect the ozone layer however it does not include legally binding reduction goals for use of chlorofluorocarbons. Hence Pair 1 is correct.
  • The Vienna Convention for the protection of the Ozone layer and its Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the Ozone Layer are dedicated to the protection of the Earth's ozone layer.

UNCDD ( United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification)

  • ​Established in the year 1994, it is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. Hence Pair 2 is correct.
  • It is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation.
  • It is one of the Rio Conventions that focuses on desertification, land degradation, and drought.

Ramsar Convention

  • ​The Convention on wetlands is an intergovernmental treaty that provides the framework for national action and international cooperation for the conservation and wise use of wetlands and their resources. Hence Pair 3 is correct
  • It was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar in 1971 and came into force in 1975, and it is the only global environmental treaty that deals with a particular ecosystem.

Basal Convention

  • ​It was adopted on 22 March 1989 and is based on the transboundary movements of Hazardous Wastes and their disposal. Hence pair 4 is incorrect.
  • The objective was to provide human health and the environment against the adverse effects of hazardous waste.
  • Its scope of application covers a wide range of wastes defined as Hazardous Waste.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 93

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Lizards, frog, hen all are-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 93

  • Fertilization is a fusion of gametes to form offspring.
  • It is external fertilization and internal fertilization.
  • In external fertilization, gametes are released from the body in an outside environment, and thus fertilization takes place.
  • In internal fertilization, gametes fusion occurs inside the body.
  • Internal fertilization consists of three types.
  • It is oviparous, viviparous and ovoviviparous.
  • Lizards belong to the class of reptiles.
  • Fertilisation is internal.
  • It is oviparous and lays eggs.
  • The egg then hatches out to release the baby lizard.
  • Frog belongs to the class amphibia.
  • Fertilisation is external.
  • It is oviparous and lays eggs.
  • It hatches out to form a tadpole larva.
  • The larva then undergoes metamorphosis to form an adult frog.
  • Hen belongs to class aves.
  • Fertlisation is internal.
  • It lays an egg that hatches to a chick.
  • Lizards, frogs, and hens are all oviparous.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 94

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Which among the following is classified under Gymnosperms?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 94

  • Pinus is classified under Gymnosperm.
  • Gymnosperms is belong to the kingdom of Plantae and sub-kingdom Embryophyta.
  • Gymnosperm is a seed-producing plant which include conifers, cycads, gnetophytes and ginkgos.
  • Gymnosperm does not produce flowers or fruits and has naked seeds.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 95

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Endocrine glands are regulated by the _______ gland.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 95

  • Endocrine glands are organs that form hormones.
  • The hormones are released by the organ, travel to the target organ, and regulate body functions.
  • It controls body growth, development, and metabolism.
  • Pituitary glands are the master glands.
  • Endocrine glands are regulated by the pituitary glands.
  • It is present inside the cavity termed Sella turcica.
  • The pituitary glands secrete the hormones such as TSH, FSH, LH, and ACTH, and these hormone act on the target glands and thus controls their secretion and control body functions such as growth and metabolism.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 96

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Who is considered the father of Biology?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 96

Aristotle -

  • The 'father of biology' is called the Greek philosopher Aristotle (384–322 BCE).
  • Aristotle arranged it with his ideas and concepts about biology.
  • Aristotle is also called the 'Father of Zoology' which is the branch of biology.
  • He was a disciple of Plato and a master of Alexander.
  • Aristotle's famous book on politics is "Politics".​

Important Points
​Theophrastus -

  • Theophrastus is the father of Botany.
  • Plants are studied in botany.

Carl Linnaeus-

  • He was a Swedish Botanist, Physician, and Zoologist.
  • Linnaeus made the first systematic attempt to classify Flora and Fauna.
  • Carl Linnaeus conceptualized the binomial nomenclature of classification.

​Gregor John Mendel-

  • He was a German-speaking Austrian Augustinian pastor and scientist.
  • He is called the 'Father of Genetics.
  • He set the rules of genetics by experimenting on the seeds of peas.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 97

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Motion of potter wheel is ______.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 97

Motion: If anything is changing its position with respect to time, it is said to be in motion.
The motion has been categorized into its various types.
Types of Motion
BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (112)

  • In rotational motion, the object rotates along its axis as the earth rotates resulting in day and night.
  • The potter spins the wheel and the wheel rotates along its axis.

So, this is an example of rotational motion.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 98

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Paramagnetic substances are:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 98

  • Those substances which are weakly magnetised when placed in an external magnetic field in the same direction as the applied field are called paramagnetic substances.
  • They tend to move from the weaker to the stronger part of the field. The magnetism exhibited by these substances is called Para magnetism.
  • Examples: Aluminium, platinum, sodium, calcium.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 99

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Which of the statements given below is/are correct?
1. Virtual images are formed at points where the light rays appear to diverge from.
2. Virtual images are always erect.

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 99

Images are 2 types:

  • Real images
  • Virtual image

The image that cannot be obtained on the screen is a virtual image while real images are formed on the screen.
The virtual image can not be obtained on the screen as the image formed is from the light rays that do not meet but appear to meet when they are produced backward.

  • The formed image is always erect.

When the light rays diverge but project imaginary extensions that converge to a focal length, the image is virtual.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 100

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Which of the following is a scalar quantity?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 100

  • A scalar quantity is defined as the physical quantity with magnitude and no direction.
  • The mass has only magnitude, not direction. If we consider the weight, then it is the force experienced by the object due to its mass.
  • Mass, Speed, Distance, Time, Area, Volume, Density, and Temperature are examples of Scalar Quantity.
  • A vector quantity is defined as the physical quantity that has both directions as well as magnitude.
  • Linear momentum, Acceleration, Displacement, Momentum, Angular velocity, Force, Electric field, and Polarization are examples of vector quantity.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 101

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Which of the following is the difference between Chandrayan 3 from Chandrayan 2?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 101

  • Chandrayaan 03 - This will be India's third planned lunar exploration mission. This will be the mission of Chandrayaan-2 again but it will only consist of lander and rover similar to that of Chandrayaan-2. GSLV Mk III will be used for this mission
  • Unlike its predecessor, Chandrayaan-3 will not have an orbiter.
  • The orbiter launched during Chandrayaan-2 will be used for Chandrayaan-3.
  • Chandrayaan-2, aimed at landing a rover at the unknown lunar south pole, was launched on July 22, 2019, aboard the country's most powerful geosynchronous launch vehicle.
  • Chandrayaan-3 is important for ISRO as it will demonstrate India's capabilities to make landings for further interplanetary missions.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 102

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Which of the following countries announced that they will not use fossil fuels on their Domestic flights after 2030?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 102

The correct answer is Denmark.

  • The Danish government has announced a goal to make domestic flights fossil fuel free by year 2030.
  • The Prime Minister Mette Frederilksen said she wanted to "make flying green" and by 2030 the domestic airlines will not use fossil fuels in order to meet its emission target.
  • The Danish Government has set a target of reducing its carbon emission by 70 % by 2030.
  • The European manufacturer Airbus has announced plans to develop hydrogen-fuelled planes that could be operational by 2035. If the hydrogen used to fuel them is generated using renewable energy, this could be a way for Denmark to reach its goals.
  • Meanwhile, Sweden has also announced plans to make its domestic flights fossil fuel-free by 2030. It is also hoping to make international flights green by 2045.

About Denmark:

  • Denmark, the most southerly of the Nordic countries, is a small, densely populated country, made up of a large number of islands (it is made up of the Jutland Peninsula and more than 400 islands in the North Sea) skirted by lovely beaches.
  • Official Name: Kingdom of Denmark
  • Form of Government: Constitutional monarchy
  • Capital: Copenhagen
  • Official Language: Danish
  • Currency: Danish Krone
  • The people of Denmark are known as Danes.
  • Monarch: Margrethe II
  • Prime Minister: Mette Frederiksen
  • The most important sources of revenue in Denmark are oil and other forms of energy, the medical industry, agricultural produce, shipping and IT services.

About Nordic region

  • The Nordic region, or Norden, may be defined as consisting of the five sovereign states Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway and Sweden, plus the three autonomous territories connected to these states: the Faroe Islands and Greenland (Denmark) and Åland (Finland). These states are widely considered to form a distinctive region by virtue of their strong historical ties and the tradition of intergovernmental cooperation across national boundaries.
  • Norden means literally ‘the North’ in the Danish, Norwegian and Swedish languages.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 103

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Which of the following hymns replaced the “Abide with me” in the Beating Retreat Ceremony 2022?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 103

  • The Centre decided to drop one of Mahatma Gandhi's favourite hymns "Abide With Me" from this year's Beating Retreat ceremony on January 29 as playing more Indian tunes would be appropriate in view of the 'Azadi ka Amrit Mahotsav', which celebrates the 75th year of India's Independence.
  • "Abide With Me", written by Scottish Anglican poet and hymnologist Henry Francis Lyte in 1847, had been part of the Beating Retreat ceremony since 1950.
  • For this year's ceremony, the hymn has been replaced by the popular patriotic song "Ae Mere Watan Ke Logon", which was written by Kavi Pradeep to commemorate the supreme sacrifice made by Indian soldiers during the 1962 Indo-China war.
  • Beating Retreat marks the end of nearly week-long festivities of Republic Day, which used to begin on January 24. But this year, the celebrations will begin on January 23, the birth anniversary of Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose.
  • The brochure released by the Indian Army on Saturday listed 26 tunes that will be played at this year's ceremony by 44 buglers, 16 trumpeters and 75 drummers at Vijay Chowk.
  • This year, a Kumaoni tune from Uttarakhand, Channa Billauri, has made it to the list.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 104

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According to the union budget 2022-23 ,how many new Vande Bharat trains are proposed to be inducted in the next three years in the Indian Railways ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 104

According to the Union Budget 2022-23, Indian Railways proposes to induct 400 new Vande Bharat trains in the next three years.
BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (120)
Railways

  • Railway will popularise the “One Station One Product” concept to help local businesses & supply chains.
  • 2000 Km of railway network to be brought under Kavach, the indigenous world-class technology for safety and capacity augmentation in 2022-23
  • 400 new generation Vande Bharat Trains to be manufactured during the next three years.
  • 100 PM GatiShakti Cargo terminals for multimodal logistics to be developed during the next three years

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 105

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Who among the following is awarded the Global Entrepreneur of the Year Award?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 105

  • Silicon Valley-based The Indus Entrepreneurs has named Kumar Mangalam Birla, as the ‘Global Entrepreneur of the Year’ in business transformation.
  • BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (122)
  • Kumar Mangalam Birla is the first Indian industrialist to receive this award.
  • He was given this award at a ceremony in Dubai for his leadership of the conglomerate during the Covid-19 pandemic.
  • Birla joins an exclusive list of global entrepreneurs to receive the award this year that include
  • Elon Musk (Global Entrepreneur of the Year – Immigrant Entrepreneur),
  • Jeff Bezos (Global Entrepreneur of the Year – First Generation)and
  • Satya Nadella (Global Entrepreneur of the Year – Entrepreneurial CEO).

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 106

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Google has set up an India Digitisation Fund to invest in India. What is the corpus of this fund ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 106

Google has set up India Digitization Fund to invest in India. The amount of this fund is $10 billion.
Google has announced on 28 January 2022 that it will invest USD 1 billion in the second largest telecom company in India Bharti Airtel . Of this USD 700 million will be invested by Google in the company to pick up a 1.28%stake in Airtel and the rest , USD 300 million will be invested over a period of time.

  • This is the second major investment of Google in a telecom company in India .In July 2020 it invested USD 4.5 billion in Reliance Jio to pick up a 7.73% stake in the company .
  • The investment of Google in the telecom companies is part of its India Digitisation Fund where it has committed to invest USD 10 billion in the next 5 to 7 years in India.
  • Google Chief Executive Officer (CEO): Sundar Pichai
  • Chairman of Bharti Airtel :Sunil Bharti Mittal

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 107

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Which country has recently organized the G-7 summit 2021 ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 107

The G-7 summit was held in Cornwall (England) on 12 and 13 June.
G7 Summit 2021

  • The 47th G7 summit was held between June 11 and 13, 2021.
  • It was the first physical G7 summit held in two years and took place in Carbys Bay, Cornwall, UK.
  • Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi was also invited to be a part of the summit.
  • Prime Minister of United Kingdom- Boris Johnson

Different Aspects
Historical Aspect

  • About G7
  • The G7 is a grouping of the seven most advanced economies (countries) according to the International Monetary Fund (IMF).
  • The seven countries are Canada, USA, UK, France, Germany, Japan and Italy.

Political Aspect

  • India is not a member of G-7 yet India was invited.
  • Russia was suspended from G-8 in 2014 after it annexed Crimea of Ukraine. It left the organisation in 2017

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 108

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Aung San Suu Kyi, who was recently in the news, belongs to which country?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 108

The military junta ruling Myanmar has sentenced the deposed leader Aung San Suu Kyi for four years for incitement against the military and breaching COVID-19 rules.
Aung San Suu Kyi

  • She is the youngest daughter of the Burmese Father of the Nation Aung Sang.
  • She studied in Delhi University and she rose to prominence for leading a democracy movement against the army rule in Myanmar.
  • Her Party National League for Democracy(NLD) won the 1990 election but she was jailed and put in house arrest for almost 15 years
  • She became the face of the Pro democracy movement in the world
  • She got the Nobel Peace Prize 1991.
  • Her Party won the 2015 General election and she became the State Counsellor(Prime Minister ).
  • On 1 February 2021, Aung San Suu Kyi was arrested and deposed by the Myanmar military, along with other leaders of her National League for Democracy (NLD) party, after the Myanmar military declared the November 2020 general election results fraudulent.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 109

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Which operation has been launched by the Government of India to bring back its citizens from Afghanistan, after the Taliban captured Afghanistan capital Kabul ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 109

Operation Devi Shakti has been launched by the Government of India to bring back its citizens from Afghanistan, after the Taliban captured Afghanistan capital Kabul.
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • Taliban took control of Kabul on 15 August 2021 after the President of Afghanistan Ashraf Ghani fled from the country.
  • The Government of India started Operation “ Devi Shakti” to evacuate its diplomatic staff, ITBP personnel and Indians in Afghanistan through an air route.
  • Taliban or Talib in Pashto language means students. They were children of Afghan refugees who fled to Pakistan after the Soviet Union sent its troops to Afghanistan in 1978 to support communist government in Afghanistan .
  • They were trained and funded by Pakistan Army's Inter Service Intelligence (ISI). They came to power in 1996 in Afghanistan.
  • They were ousted from power in 2001 when US led coalition forces invaded Afghanistan to capture Al -Qaeda leader Osama Bin Laden who was accused of masterminding the bombing of the World Trade Center in the U.S on September 11. 2001.
  • After an agreement with Taliban in Doha, Qatar, United States President Joe Biden has fixed 31 August 2021 as the date when the last U.S troops will leave Afghanistan.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (127)

POLITICAL ASPECTS

  • The name of the Kabul airport: Hamid Karzai International Airport.
  • The Taliban overthrew the elected government in August 2021, after launching a renewed offensive in May.
  • In September, the Taliban declared the formation of the Islamic Emirate of Afghanistan (IEA) and installed an unelected cabinet.
  • Mohammad Hasan Akhund, the head of the movement’s Rehbari Shura (Leadership Council), was named prime minister.
  • Haibatullah Akhundzada, the movement’s leader, was named the IEA’s supreme leader.
  • Prior to the Taliban takeover, the president was directly elected for up to two five-year terms and could appoint ministers with parliamentary approval.
  • The last republican president, Ashraf Ghani, was declared by the Independent Election Commission (IEC) to have won reelection in September 2019 presidential contest with 50.6 percent of the vote.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 110

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When was the first caste based census conducted in India after Independence ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 110

  • For the first time after Independence, caste census for all castes were held in the 2011 census.
  • The 2011 caste census was titled as “Socio Economic Caste Census 2011(SECC)”.

Note

  • Census in India was started in 1872 but the first proper systematic census in India was started from 1881
  • Caste was also included during the census till 1931.
  • After Independence the Census was conducted under the Census act 1948 by the Union Home Ministry every 10 years.
  • After Independence, census data included the census of the Scheduled Tribes and Scheduled Caste in the Census of India held after every ten years.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 111

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Heat stored in water vapour is ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 111

  • Heat stored in water vapor is latent heat.
  • When water vapour condenses to form water liquid, energy is released as water particles 'give up' some of their energy in order to slow down and move closer together again. The energy released is called latent heat.

IMPORTANT FACTS
Latent heat-:

  • Latent heat does not raise the temperature.
  • It changes the state of the substance.
  • It overcome the force of attraction between the particles of a substance.
  • The unit of latent heat is J ⁄ Kg.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (130)
Some of the applications of the latent heat -

  • Quenching fire by using boiling water
  • Cooling drinks by the use of cold water and ice
  • Melting of ice on road with the help of salt
  • Steaming food
  • The sweat drops present on your body utilizes the heat of the body for the phase transition from liquid to vapor. This results in a cooling effect (called evaporative cooling) that helps to maintain body temperature and cools the body down when it gets too hot.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 112

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HEV stands for -

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 112

The full form of HEVs is the hybrid electric vehicle.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • The vehicle uses both the internal combustion (usually petrol) engine and the battery-powered motor power train.
  • These vehicles are not as efficient as fully electric or plug-in hybrid vehicles.
  • HEVs are also known as series hybrid or parallel hybrid.
  • The engine gets energy from fuel, and the motor gets electricity from batteries. The transmission is rotated simultaneously by both engine and electric motor. This then drives the wheels.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (132)
Main Components of HEV:

  • Engine, Electric motor, Battery pack with controller & inverter, Fuel tank, Control module .

Working Principles of HEV:

  • The fuel tank supplies energy to the engine like a regular car. The batteries run on an electric motor. Both the engine and electric motor can turn the transmission at the same time.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 113

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The structure of glucose and galactose are the same except with regard to-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 113

  • Glucose and galactose both are carbohydrates or sugars or disaccharides.
  • Carbohydrates are the most abundant compounds on the earth. They are the nutrients that must be present in our diet.
  • Glucose and galactose both are monosaccharides (having only one sugar).

Structure of glucose-

  • Glucose is the main sugar that is metabolized by the body for energy.
  • Glucose can either be metabolized in aerobic conditions as well as in anaerobic conditions.
  • The breakdown of glucose molecules starts with the glycolysis pathway.
  • Plants and algae prepare glucose by the process of photosynthesis (the process by which plants make their own food using Sunlight, chlorophyll, water, and carbon dioxide).
  • The molecule of glucose is made up of 6 carbons and an aldehyde group.
  • As it contains 6 carbon and 1 aldehyde group that’s why it is called aldohexose sugar.
  • It exists in both cyclic and acyclic forms.

Structure of galactose-

  • Galactose is a type of sugar that can exist in a cyclic form as well as in acyclic form.
  • Charles Weissman coined the term glucose.
  • It is a odourless white-colored solid.
  • The molecule of galactose has 6 carbons and 1 aldehyde group.

Difference between the structure of glucose and galactose-

  • Galactose is the isomer of glucose.
  • They differ only in the organization of their atoms.
  • Glucose and galactose are stereoisomers of each other.
  • The main structural difference between galactose and glucose is the orientation of the hydroxyl group (OH) at carbon 4.
  • Therefore it has been clear from the above discussion that the structure of glucose and galactose are the same except with regard to the fourth carbon atom.

Note-

  • Isomers are molecules that have the same structural formula but they differ only in the orientation of their molecules.
  • That’s why their physical and chemical properties may differ such as their boiling point, melting point, reactivity, etc.
  • Glucose, fructose and galactose are isomers, they have the same chemical formula (C6H12O6) but different structures.
  • sucrose (C12H22O11),
  • lactose (C12H22O11),
  • maltose (C12H22O11),

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 114

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Which one of the following chemicals is used to fuse plant protoplasts in genetic engineering?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 114

Polyethylene glycol is used to fuse plant protoplasts in genetic engineering.
IMPORTANT FACTS -
Chemo fusion:

  • Several chemicals has been used to induce protoplast fusion such as sodium nitrate ,polyethylene glycol, Calcium lons(Ca+2).
  • It cause the isolated protoplast to adhere each other.
  • It is a non specific.
  • It can cause massive fusion product.
  • It can be cytotoxic and non selective and having less fusion frequency.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 115

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Which of the following gases can be used for storage?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 115

  • Nitrogen is the 7th most abundantly found element of the entire solar system.
  • Almost 80% of the earth’s atmosphere is made up of this gas.
  • In terms of mass, nitrogen gases make up around 3% of the human body and after oxygen, carbon, and hydrogen it is the most relevant element in the body.

General uses of nitrogen-

  • We can also find it in the nucleic acids (DNA and RNA) of our very makeup and it is also essential in cell growth, energy production, and many other body processes.
  • The chemical industry uses this gas in the production of fertilizers, nylon, nitric acid, dyes, medicines, and explosives.

Nitrogen as a preservative of foods-

  • Nitrogen gases are used for generating an altered or man-made atmosphere condition where it is applied with carbon dioxide to help aid in the preservation of packaged or bulk foods.
  • It helps with food preservation by safeguarding against oxidative damage which causes the decay and breakdown that causes food to spoil.

Helium Used For-

  • Helium replaced hydrogen in airships, after hydrogen was found to be highly reactive.
  • Helium is used for medicine, scientific research, arc welding, refrigeration, gas for aircraft, coolant for nuclear reactors, cryogenic research and detecting gas leaks.
  • It is used for its cooling properties because of its boiling point being close to absolute zero.
  • This makes it attractive for use in superconductors.
  • Helium is also used for pressurizing rockets and other spacecraft.
  • It is also used as a heat-transfer agent.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 116

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The Limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 116

The Limb bones of children become bent if there is deficiency of vitamin D.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • Vitamin D is a fat-soluble vitamin.

The vitamin comes in two main forms:-

  • Vitamin D2 (ergocalciferol)
  • Vitamin D3 (cholecalciferol)

Vitamin D deficiency can be caused because of certain medical conditions, such as:

  • Obesity
  • Kidney Diseases
  • Liver Diseases
  • Heart Diseases
  • Dementia (Memory Loss)
  • Rickets
  • Cancer

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 117

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Roots of plants are-

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 117

Gravitropism (also known as geotropism)- is a coordinated process of differential growth by a plant in response to gravity pulling on it.

  • It also occurs in fungi.

Gravity can be either-

  • artificial gravity or
  • natural gravity.

It is a general feature of all higher and many lower plants as well as other organisms.

  • Charles Darwin was one of the first to scientifically document that roots show positive gravitropism and stems show negative gravitropism.
  • That is, roots grow in the direction of gravitational pull (i.e., downward) and
  • stems grow in the opposite direction (i.e., upwards).

This behavior can be easily demonstrated with any potted plant.

  • When laid onto its side, the growing parts of the stem begin to display negative gravitropism, growing upwards.

Herbaceous (non-woody) stems are capable of a degree of actual bending, but most of the redirected movement occurs as a consequence of root or stem growth outside.
Phototropism is the ability of the plant to reorient the shoot growth towards a direction of light source.

  • Phototropism is important to plants as it enhances the ability of plants to optimize their photosynthetic capacity.

Phototrophs are organisms that use light as their source of energy to produce ATP and carry out various cellular processes.

  • All phototrophs are not obligatorily photosynthetic.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 118

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Who established the wave nature of particles?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 118

De-Broglie established the wave nature of particles.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • Louis de Broglie suggested that the particles like electrons, protons, neutrons, etc have also dual nature. i.e. they also can have particle as well as wave nature.
  • According to de-Broglie, the wavelength associated with a particle of mass m, moving with velocity v is given by the relation λ = h/mv where h = Planck’s constant.
  • de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the velocity of the particle. If the particle moves faster, then the wavelength will be smaller and vice versa.
  • If the particle is at rest, then the de Broglie wavelength is infinite. Such a wave can not be visualized.
  • de Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of the particle. The wavelength associated with a heavier particle is smaller than that with a lighter particle.
  • de Broglie wavelength is independent of the charge of the particle.
  • The de-Broglie equation is applicable to all material objects but it has significance only in case of microscopic particles. Since, we come across macroscopic objects in our everyday life, de-Broglie relationship has no significance in everyday life.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 119

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Which of the following options is/are correct for transparent substances?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 119

To get a clear idea about transparent substances you can think of examples like the lens, soap bubbles, etc. These substances to their behavior with light.
The substance absorbs all the light incident on them. That means these are not capable of having light pass through them. We call them opaque substances.

  • An example of opaque is the quality of a black sheet of paper.

The substance allows light to pass through them. We call them transparent substances.

  • Transparency is the physical property of allowing light to pass through the material without an appreciable scattering of light.

Examples of transparent items are glass, water, and air.
The substance allows light to pass through them partially. We call these substances translucent substances.
Note-

  • This transparency can provide the perfect camouflage for animals if they are able to achieve it.
  • This is easier in dimly lit or turbid seawater than in good illumination.
  • Many marine animals such as jellyfish are highly transparent.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 120

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CT scan is essentially ____

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 120

  • Computed tomography is commonly referred to as a CT scan.
  • A CT scan is a diagnostic imaging exam that uses X-ray technology to produce images of the inside of the body.
  • A CT scan can show detailed images of any part of the body, including the bones, muscles, organs and blood vessels.
  • CT scans can also be used for fluid or tissue biopsies, or as part of preparation for surgery or treatment.
  • CT scans are frequently done with and without contrast agent to improve the radiologist's ability to find any abnormalities.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 121

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Which of the following is not a Abiotic factor?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 121

  • A non-living component of an ecosystem that forms the climate is an abiotic element.
  • To build a special environment, abiotic and biotic factors function together.
  • In terms of development, maintenance, and reproduction, abiotic components include physical environments and non-living resources that influence living organisms.
  • Resources are distinguished as substances or objects needed by one organism in the ecosystem and used or otherwise made inaccessible for other organisms to use.
  • Product degradation of a substance, e.g. hydrolysis, happens by chemical or physical processes.
  • Both the non-living elements of an environment are considered abiotic elements, such as air environments and water supply.
  • ‘Water, sun, radiation, temperature, humidity, climate, acidity, and soil can contain abiotic factors’
  • Each of the above is influenced also by the macroscopic atmosphere.
  • In the sense of aquatic or sub-terrestrial environments, pressure and sound waves can also be considered.
  • Aerial exposure, substrate, water clarity, solar radiation and tides also involve abiotic variables in ocean ecosystems.
  • Mushrooms are not an example for abiotic factors because biotic variables and forms of soil will include mushrooms

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 122

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Who among the following is credited to work for the unification of electricity, magnetism, and optics field of Physics?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 122

James Clerk Maxwell made the efforts for the unification of electricity, magnetism and optics field of Physics.

  • He showed that light is an electromagnetic wave.
  • James Clerk Maxwell was a Scottish mathematician, physicist and is known best for his mathematical work on electromagnetism and on the behavior of gases.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 123

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Hardest Part of the Human Body?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 123

Hardest Part of the Human Body is Tooth Enamel.
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • Tooth Enamel is the most highly mineralized substance in the human body.
  • It is a tissue and not a bone.
  • This tissue has high mineral content which makes it the hardest substance.
  • Enamel is the insensitive white and shiny covering of the crown.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (144)
    OPTIONS EXPLANATION

Femur

  • The thigh bone is called a femur and not only is it the strongest bone in the body, it is also the longest.
  • It’s a critical part of your ability to stand and move.
  • femur also supports lots of important muscles, tendons, ligaments and parts of circulatory system.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (145)

Temporal bones

  • The temporal bones are two major bones in the skull, or cranium.
  • They protect the temporal lobe of the brain and surround the ear canal and Provide structural support to the skull.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (146)

Knee bone

  • The knee is one of the largest and most complex joints in the body. The knee joins the thigh bone (femur) to the shin bone (tibia). The smaller bone that runs alongside the tibia (fibula) and the kneecap (patella) are the other bones that make the knee joint.
    BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (147)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 124

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Which of the following is corelated with blood pressure?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 124

Adrenal is correlated with blood pressure.
IMPORTANT FACTS -

  • An adrenal gland is located on top of each kidney.
  • The adrenal glands make and release corticosteroid hormones and epinephrine that maintain blood pressure and regulate metabolism.
  • Adrenal glands, also known as suprarenal glands, are small, triangular-shaped glands.
  • Adrenal glands produce hormones that help regulate your metabolism, immune system, response to stress and other essential functions.
  • When adrenal glands don’t produce enough hormones, this can lead to adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease).

OPTIONS EXPLANATION -
Pancreas :

  • The pancreas is located across the back of the abdomen, behind the stomach.
  • The pancreas plays a role in digestion, as well as hormone production.
  • Hormones produced by the pancreas include insulin and glucagon, which regulate levels of blood sugar.

Testis :

  • The testes produce testosterone and sperm.
  • The testes are the primary reproductive organs and generate sperm cells through a process called spermatogenesis.
  • The prostate gland, the seminal vesicles, and the bulbourethral glands contribute seminal fluid to sem*n, which carries and protects the sperm. During sexual intercourse, sem*n moves through a series of ducts to deliver the sem*n directly into the female reproductive system.
  • The production of sperm is constant and occurs within numerous lobules in each testis.

Liver :

  • Liver is the largest gland and second largest organ of Human Body.
  • Liver is the only organ that can regenerate or can completely regrow.
  • It helps to control blood sugar level.
  • It converts glucose from carbohydrates rich foods in to glycogen and is stored in the liver.
  • Liver is the major site of hormone breakdown. It breaks down estrogen and secretes it into bile, which enters intestines for excretion.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 125

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Which acid is used in the body to help digestion?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 125

On a chemical level, an acid is defined as anything that breaks apart and donates protons or hydrogen ions to a solution.

  • The most important acids to the human body are amino acids, fatty acids, ascorbic acid and hydrochloric acid.

Hydrochloric acid, or HCl, is a critical component of digestion.

  • The stomach contains a mixture of HCl, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, which works together to break down the food you eat and convert a compound called pepsinogen to pepsin, the enzyme that helps break down proteins into amino acids.
  • Without adequate amounts of stomach acid, you can’t break down the food you eat and, as a result, your body can't properly absorb the nutrients from it.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 126

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By whom the Attorney General of India is appointed?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 126

The Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the government.
Important Facts

  • The Attorney General of India (AG) is a part of the executive body of the Union.
  • AG is the highest law officer of the country.
  • Article 76 of the Constitution provides for the office of the Attorney General of India.
  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court .
  • He should be a citizen of India.
  • He should have five years experience of serving as a Judge of a High Court.
  • Or 10 years experience of practice in a High Court.
  • In the opinion of the President, he should be a person capable of judicial matters.
  • Term of Office: Not fixed by the Constitution.
  • Venugopal was appointed as the 15th Attorney General of India in the year 2017.
  • He replaced Mukul Rohatgi who was Attorney General from 2014-2017.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 127

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In which year the states were reorganized in India on the basis of the recommendations of the States Reorganization Commission?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 127

14 states and 6 union territories were formed by the States Reorganization Act 1956.
Some Important Points

  • The Union and its territories are mentioned in Articles 1 to 4 of Part I of the Constitution.
  • The first Chairman of the State Reorganization Commission was Fazal Ali.
  • The report(State Reorganization Commission 1953) was presented in 1955 and it was widely accepted that language should be made the mainstay in the reorganization of the states. But it rejected the principle of 'one state, one language'. It was of the opinion that the unity of India should be given prominence in the reconstruction of any political unit.
  • Andhra Pradesh was the first state formed in 1953 on the basis of language.
  • Parliament can create a new state, enter the union or change the name etc. by simple majority.
  • Potti Sriramulu died in a fast unto death demanding a separate state for Telugu speaking people.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 128

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How many female members were there in the Indian Constituent Assembly?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 128

The total number of women in the Constituent Assembly of India was 15.
Some Important Points

  • The constitution of the Constituent Assembly was first proposed in 1942 by the Cripps Mission.
  • The total number of members of the Constituent Assembly was fixed at 389.
  • Hyderabad was such a princely state whose representatives did not participate in the Constituent Assembly.
  • Most of the representatives in the Constituent Assembly were from the United Provinces (55) provinces.
  • The Constituent Assembly was formed on the recommendation of the Cabinet Mission which visited India in 1946.
  • The first meeting of the Constituent Assembly was held on9 December 1946 at the Constitution Hall (now known as the Central Hall of Parliament House) in New Delhi. Shri Sachchidananda Sinha was elected as the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly.
  • Dr. Rajendra Prasad later became the permanent president of the Constituent Assembly.
  • On 13 December 1946, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru presented the Objective resolution.
  • It took almost three years (two years, eleven months and seventeen days) for the Constituent Assembly to complete the historic task of drafting the Constitution for independent India. The Constituent Assembly of India held a total of eleven sessions with a total duration of 165 days.
  • This Constitution was hereby adopted, enacted and surrendered on 26 November 1949 AD.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 129

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On the basis of the recommendations of which one of the following is the financial distribution between the Union and the States?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 129

  • The main function of the Finance Commission is to submit a recommendation to the President regarding the grants-in-aid to be given by the Center to the states in addition to the sharing of taxes between the Center and the states.
  • Article 263 in Part XI of the Constitution contains provisions regarding the Inter-State Council.
  • NITI Aayog is a body created by a tenure resolution of the Government of India. On August 13, 2014, the Government of India dissolved the 65-year-old Planning Commission and established NITI Aayog in its place on January 1, 2015. NITI Aayog is a non-constitutional body.

Some Important Points

  • The Finance Commission is mentioned in Part XII of the Constitution.
  • The Finance Commission is mentioned in Article 280 of the Constitution.
  • The chairman of the first Finance Commission was K.C. Niyogi.
  • The current (15th) Finance Commission chairman is N.K. Singh.
  • The Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years.
  • The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members who are appointed by the President.
  • The Finance Commission is constituted by the President.
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 130

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Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 130

The Directive Principles of State Policy, the method of nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha and the election of the President are taken from the Constitution of Ireland.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 131

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In the judgment of which case did the Supreme Court first declare that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 131

  • In the case of Berubari Union (1960), the Supreme Court was the first to declare that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
  • In Golakhnath vs State of Punjab the preamble was considered as the core soul of the Constitution .
  • In the case of Kesavananda Bharati v State of Kerala (1973), the Supreme Court overturned the above decision and accepted the Preamble as a part of the Constitution.
  • The Supreme Court said in the Sajjan Singh case (1965) that the Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution (in the Fundamental Rights).

Some Important Points

  • The words 'socialist', 'secular' and 'integrity' were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act 1976.
  • The Preamble has been amended once so far.
  • The idea of the Preamble has been taken from the Constitution of the United States of America.
  • The Preamble can be amended by the Parliament.
  • According to the Preamble, the supreme power of the governance of India is vested in the people of India.
  • The language of the Preamble is taken from the Constitution of Australia.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 132

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Who among the following advises the President to dissolve the Lok Sabha?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 132

Solution

  • The Council of Ministers advises the President of India to dissolve the Lok Sabha or the lower house. Article 80(1)(b) deals with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
  • The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are mentioned in Article 93 of the Indian Constitution. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha do not take oath of the office.
  • The constitution of the Rajya Sabha is mentioned in Article 80, which shall consist of 12 members nominated by the President, persons associated with literature, science, art and social service and not more than 238 representatives of the states.
  • According to Article 75(1), the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and other ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister and according to Article 74(1) there shall be a Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister to aid and advise the President.

Some Important Points

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BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 133

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As enshrined in the Indian Constitution, which one of the following is NOT included in the fundamental right to equality?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 133

The right to equality in the Indian Constitution has been provided by 5 articles under Article 14 to Article 18. These are-

  • Article 14 - Equality before the law
  • Article 15 - Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth
  • Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment
  • Article 17 - Abolition of untouchability
  • Article 18 - Abolition of titles
  • Hence option 4 is not included.

Some Important Points

  • Articles 12 to 35 are related to Fundamental Rights.
  • Fundamental rights are given in Part III of the Indian Constitution.
  • Initially 7 Fundamental Rights were given in the Indian Constitution. By the 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978, the right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights and kept as a legal right.
  • At present there are a total of 6 Fundamental Rights.
  • Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution have been taken from the Constitution of the United States of America.
  • By the 44th constitutional amendment, it was provided that even during an emergency, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 134

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Given below are two statements one labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Article 30 of the Indian Constitution does not define the word 'minority class'.
Reason (R) : The constitution recognizes only linguistic and religious minorities.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 134

  • The word minority has not been defined in Article 30. The assertion(A) is correct.
  • Article 30(1) of the Indian Constitution states that all minorities, whether based on religion or language, shall have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice. According to Article 30(2), in granting aid to educational institutions, the State shall not discriminate against any educational institution on the ground that it is under the management of any minority group based on religion or language. Clearly Article 30 recognizes linguistic and religious minorities. The reason(R) is also true.
  • Hence both the assertion and the reason in question are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.

Some Important Points

  • Initially 7 Fundamental Rights were given in the Indian Constitution. By the 44th Constitutional Amendment 1978, the right to property was removed from the list of fundamental rights and kept as a legal right.
  • Right to property is now a legal right under Article 300A.
  • At present there are a total of 6 Fundamental Rights.
  • By the 44th constitutional amendment, it was provided that even during an emergency, Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended.
  • During the emergency declared on the basis of war and external aggression, the Fundamental Rights granted by Article-19 automatically get suspended.
  • During the emergency declared on the ground of armed rebellion, the Fundamental Right conferred by Article 19 is not automatically suspended.
  • A committee was constituted by the Constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Vallabhbhai Patel for consultation on Fundamental Rights.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 135

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Which of the following committees recommended the Panchayati Raj System in India ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 135

The Panchayati Raj system in India was recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
Punchhi Commission

  • The Punchhi Commission was constituted by the Government of India in 2007 as a commission on Centre-State relations. It was headed by Justice Madan Mohan Punchhi, formerly the Chief Justice of India from 18 January 1998 until his retirement on 9 October 1998. Were.

Rajamannar Commission

  • In September 1969, the DMK government of Tamil Nadu appointed Dr. P.V. A three-member committee was appointed under the chairmanship of
  • Two years later in 1971, the committee submitted its report.

Important facts
The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj system consisting of

  • Zilla Parishad at the district level
  • Panchayat Samiti at Block/Tehsil/Taluka Level
  • Gram Panchayat at Village Level
    • The committee recommended that the above 3 tiers should be linked together through a means of indirect election.
    • The committee recommended that Gram Panchayats should be constituted with directly elected representatives, while Panchayat Samiti and Zilla Parishad should be constituted with indirectly elected members.
    • The Panchayat Samiti should have the status of an executive body, while the Zilla Parishad should have the status of an advisory body.
    • The Zilla Parishad should be headed by the District Collector.
    • Real powers should be given to these democratic bodies.
    • These bodies should be given adequate resources to perform the functions and fulfill the responsibilities.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 136

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Which of the following is not a type of writ?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 136

Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32 and High Courts under Article 226.
IMPORTANT FACTS

  • Both the Supreme Court and the High Court have the power to issue writs with respect to fundamental rights.
  • The Supreme Court can issue writs under Article 32 and the High Court under Article 226.

Five types of writ have been given in our constitution-----
(i) Habeas Corpus
(ii) Mandamus
(iii) Certiorari
(iv) Prohibition
(v) Quo-Warranto
Habeas corpus:

  • Habeas corpus is a Latin word which means "To have the body of ". Under this the court issues an order to a person who has detained another person, to produce the body of the latter before it.

Mandamus:

  • The literal meaning of this writ is ‘We command.’ This writ is used by the court to order the public official who has failed to perform his duty or refused to do his duty, to resume his work.

Prohibition:

  • The literal meaning of ‘Prohibition’ is ‘To forbid.’ A court that is higher in position issues a Prohibition writ against a court that is lower in position to prevent the latter from exceeding its jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it doesn't posses.

Certiorari:

  • The literal meaning of the writ of ‘Certiorari’ is ‘To be certified’ or ‘To be informed.’ This writ is issued by a court higher in authority to a lower court.

Qua warranto:

  • The literal meaning of the writ of ‘Quo-Warranto’ is ‘By what authority or warrant.’ Supreme Court or High Court issue this writ to prevent illegal usurpation of a public office by a person.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 137

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Which of the following is the largest city situated on the banks of river Ganga?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 137

The River Ganges-:

  • Kanpur is the largest city situated on the banks of river Ganga.
  • Kanpur is called the Manchester of the East.
  • The leather industry here is famous in India.
  • Patna is the largest district of Bihar in terms of population, situated on the banks of river Ganga.
  • Patna district also has the highest water density.
  • Varanasi is also situated on the banks of river Ganges.
  • It is called the city of Ghats.
  • Varanasi has got the second highest population density of Uttar Pradesh.
  • Allahabad, situated at the confluence of Ganga, Yamuna and Saraswati, is the most populous district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • The Ganges river flows in the central part of Bihar from west to east.
  • India's longest river Ganga has a total length of 2525 km, in which 445 km flows in Bihar.
  • The flow area of this river in Bihar is 15165 square kilometers.
  • Its origin is the Gomukh of the Gangotri glacier, located north of the Kedarnath peak of Uttarakhand.
  • This river enters from Uttar Pradesh near Chausa in Buxar district of Bihar.
  • In this region, the Ganges, Gandak, Saryu (Ghaghra) and Karmanasha rivers determine the boundary line of Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
  • In this from the north (on the left bank) the Ghaghra, Gandak, Bagmati, Balan, Budhi Gandak, Kosi, Mahananda and Kamala rivers come together, while from the south (on the right bank) the rivers Son, Karmanasha, Punpun, Kiul etc. Is.
  • First of the major rivers, Son river in the Ganges in Bihar region, 10 km west of Danapur, comes near Maner.
  • The Ganges river enters Bengal forming a boundary line with the Sahibganj district of Bihar and Jharkhand. Ganga flows in the course of its journey in the districts of Buxar, Bhojpur, Saran, Patna, Vaishali, Samastipur, Begusarai, Khagaria, Munger, Bhagalpur, Katihar etc.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 138

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Phobos and Deimos are natural satellites of which of the following planets?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 138

Mars:

  • Mars has 2 satellites. These satellites 'Phobos' and 'Deimos' are located on Mars.
  • Mars is located in the fourth position in the order of distance from the Sun in the Solar System.
  • It is the seventh largest planet in terms of size.
  • It completes the circumambulation of the Sun in a total of 687 days.
  • There is an excess of iron oxide in the soil of Mars.
  • Therefore, its color appears red. Hence it is also called 'Red Planet' .
  • It is tilted 25 ° on its axis. Because of this, there are days and nights of the same duration on as on Earth.
  • On Mars a volcano called 'Olympus Mons'.
  • It is the largest volcano in the solar system.
  • There is also a mountain named 'Nix Olympia'.
  • It is also the highest mountain in the Solar System.
  • Nix Olympia is 3 times higher than Mount Everest.

OPTIONS EXPLANATION:
Neptune:

  • Neptune is the eighth and farthest-known Solar planet from the Sun.
  • Neptune has 14 known moons which are named after sea gods and nymphs in Greek mythology.
  • Neptune is the coldest planet in the solar system with an average temperature of -200°C.
  • Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to have visited Neptune.

Mercury:

  • Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar System and the closest to the Sun.
  • Mercury is the fastest planet in our solar system – traveling through space at nearly 29 miles (47 kilometers) per second.
  • It has the shortest year of all the planets in our solar system – 88 days.
  • Mercury has no moons.

Uranus:

  • Uranus is the seventh planet from the Sun.
  • Uranus was discovered in 1781 by astronomer William Herschel.
  • Uranus has 27 known moons, and they are named after characters from the works of William Shakespeare and Alexander Pope.
  • Like Venus, Uranus rotates east to west.
  • Voyager 2 is the only spacecraft to fly for Uranus.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 139

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Chilika Lake is located in which of the following states?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 139

Chilka Lake, the largest lake in India, in Orissa.
IMPORTANT FACTS-:
Chilka Lake-:

  • This lake is located near the Bay of Bengal in the Puri district of Odisha.
  • It is the largest brackish coastal lake in India.
  • Situated near the beach, it is a lagoon lake, whose water is salty.

CONFUSING POINTS-:

  • India's largest freshwater lake Wular Lake is in Jammu and Kashmir.
  • Pulicat Lake is the second largest brackish water lake in India.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (165)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 140

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India's first research center "Dakshin Gangotri" is located on which continent?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 140

  • India established its first research station "Dakshin Gangotri" in Antarctica in 1983.
  • It is now destroyed and is currently being used as a supply base to Dakshin Gangotri due to being buried in snow.

Research Centers of India in Antarctica-:

  • India established its second research center "Maitri" in Antarctica in 1989.
  • India established its third research center “Bharti” in Larsemann Hills in 2012 in Antarctica.
  • India started its Antarctica expedition in 1981-82.

HISTORICAL ASPECTS-:

  • “Ram Charan ji” (1960) was the first Indian to reach Antarctica.
  • "Doctor. Giriraj Sirohi” was the first Indian to reach the South Pole.
  • India's first Antarctica expedition team under the leadership of “Dr. Saeed Zahoor Qasim” started on 9 January 1982.

SCIENTIFIC ASPECT-:
Antarctica-:

  • The first attempt to discover this island was made by the English navigator James Cook, but even after crossing the Antarctic Circle, he could not reach its mainland.
  • “Fabian Welling shausen”was the first person in the world who discovered the mainland of Antarctica, who came here in 1820 on the ship name “Vostok”.

GEOGRAPHICAL ASPECT-:
Antarctica-:

  • The continent of Antarctica is the fifth largest continent in the world.
  • It is called the oceanic continent.
  • It is located in the southern hemisphere.
  • 98 percent of this continent is always covered with ice.
  • Due to being completely covered with snow, it is called the White Continent.
  • Number of Countries – 0
  • Lowest Point – Deep Lake
  • Highest point – Mount Vision
  • Area – 14,200,000 sq km
  • The land of the continent of Antarctica is bordered by three oceans: Indian, Pacific and Atlantic Ocean.
  • The southern end of this continent is called the Southern Ocean or the Antarctic Ocean.
  • The Ross Sea and the Weddell Sea are part of Antarctica.
  • The main vegetation of Antarctica are mosses and lichens.
  • The krill fish here live in flocks.

CONFUSING POINTS-:

  • The Queen Mode mountain range divides it into two parts.
  • Mount Elbrus is the only active volcano on the continent.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 Free MCQ Practice Test with Solutions - BPSC (Bihar) (167)

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 141

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What are the main resources of Western Himalayan Resource Region?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 141

  • The major natural resources of western himalayasare forests.
  • Forests contribute a major share in the land use of the region ,covering more than 65 % the total geographical area of the region.

The Himalaya-:

  • The Himalaya mountain is a newly folded mountain.
  • Folds are found in the Himalaya Mountains.
  • The new mountain ranges in this region are world famous for their high peaks.
  • There are three parallel mountain ranges in the relief of the Himalaya Mountains with valleys in between.
  • Narrow valleys and U-shaped valleysformed by rivers are found in the Himalayan regions.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 142

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Which is the hottest planet in the solar system?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 142

Venus is the hottest planet in the Solar System.
IMPORTANT FACTS-:
Venus-:

  • It is the brightest and hottest planet.
  • 225 days orbiting the Sun, closest to the Earth.
  • Evening star and morning star.
  • Earth's twin sister.
  • Venus is called the sister planet of Earth because it is almost similar to Earth in size, density and diameter.
  • Venus orbits the Sun from east to west in the opposite direction to the other planets (similar to that of Uranus), so sunrise is in the west and sunset in the east.
  • No satellite
  • Venus Expedition-: Orbiter Messenger (2004) by NASA.
  • It is also called the God of beauty.
  • 97% carbon dioxide is found in its atmosphere.
  • Earth is the body with the highest density of the solar system.
  • Mars is known as the Red Planet.
  • Saturn is the sixth planet from the Sun and the second largest planet in the Solar System.
  • Mercury is the smallest and fastest planet in the Solar System.

GEOGRAPHICAL ASPECTS-:
The planet-:

  • The celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun are called planets.
  • They do not have their own light, rather they are illuminated by sunlight.
  • All the planets revolve around the Sun from west to east, but Venus and Uranus are exceptions and they revolve around the Sun from east to west.
  • There are 8 planets in the solar system.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 143

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Which of the following tribes is famous for seasonal migration?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 143

Bhotia-:

  • The Bhotias are a tribe of Mongol tribe found in Almora, Chamoli, Pithoragarh and Uttarkashi region of Uttarakhand.
  • The Bhotia tribe is famous for its seasonal migration.
  • These people take their cattle to higher places for grazing in summer and come down to valleys in winter.

Tharu, they live from Nainital to Gorakhpur and Terai region and belong to the Kirat dynasty.
Jaunsari is the largest tribe of Uttarakhand.
Season migration-:

  • When people leave one place in a season and start living in another favorable place and as soon as the weather changes, they start living in that place again, this seasonal migration is called 'season migration'.
  • When snow starts falling on the mountains during the cold season, the tribes move down to the valleys.
  • When the summer season comes again, they start living in the mountains.
  • In India, tribes like Gaddi, Bakarwal, Bhotia etc. migrate seasonally.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 144

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What type of institution is the State Finance Commission?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 144

  • State Finance Commission is constituted by the Governor.
  • State Finance Commission is mentioned in Article 243(I).
  • State Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

Important facts:
Finance Commission

  • The Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years.
  • The Finance Commission is mentioned in Part XII of the Constitution .
  • The Finance Commission is mentioned in Article 280 of the Constitution .
  • KC Niyogi was earlier the chairman of the Finance Commission.
  • The current (15th) Finance Commission is headed by NK Singh.
  • The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other members who are appointed by the President. The Finance Commission is constituted by the President.
  • The Finance Commission is a constitutional body.

Election Commission

  • The term of the Chief Election Commissioner of India is 6 years or till the age of 65 years , whichever is earlier.
  • It was formed by the Constitution of India with the aim of conducting free and fair elections in the country.
  • Part XV of the Indian Constitution deals with elections , and establishes a commission for these matters.
  • The Election Commission was established on 25 January 1950 as per the Constitution.
  • Article 324 to 329 of the constitution deals with the powers, functions, tenure, eligibility etc. of the commission and the member.

Union Public Service Commission

  • The Union Public Service Commission submits its report about its work to the President every year.
  • Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the Constitution contain provisions regarding the Union Public Service Commission.
  • The Chairman and other members of the Union Public Service Commission are appointed by the President. The term of the Chairman and other members of the Public Service Commission is 6 years or till the age of 65 years.
  • He can resign at any time by addressing the President.

Constitutional Bodies- Election Commission, Union Public Service Commission, Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Statutory bodies- Securities and Exchange Board of India, Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 145

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Under which article of the Constitution does the President take oath before the Chief Justice of India?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 145

  • According to Article 60, every President and every person acting as President or discharging his functions shall, before entering upon his office, take oath before the Chief Justice of India or in his absence, the senior-most Judge of the Supreme Court available.
  • According to Article 52, there shall be a President of India.
  • Under Article 53 all the executive power of the Union is vested by the President.
  • According to Article 55, the President of India is elected indirectly according to the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote.
  • According to Article 54, the electoral college consists of the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of the State/Union Territory.
  • According to Article 61, the President can be removed from office before the expiry of his term only on the ground of 'violation of the Constitution'.
  • However, the meaning of the phrase 'violation of the constitution' has not been defined in the Indian Constitution.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 146

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Who among these is known as 'Andhra Bhoj'?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 146

Krishnadeva Raya had assumed the title of 'Andhra Bhoj'.
Krishnadeva Raya (1509-1529 AD):

  • Krishnadeva Raya, the ruler of Vijayanagara, fought the battle of Golconda with Sultan Quli Qutb Shah of Golconda.
  • The army of Qutb Shahi was defeated.
  • The reign of Krishnadeva Raya is considered to be a classical era of literature in Vijayanagara.
  • Eight Telugu poets of his court were regarded as eight pillars of his literary assembly and known as Ashtadiggajas.
  • His reign was also called the golden age of Telugu literature.
  • Krishnadeva Raya had assumed the title of 'Andhra Bhoj'.
  • Krishnadeva Raya himself was an outstanding poet and writer.
  • He composed- 'Amuktamalyad', which is one of the five epics of the Telugu language.
  • He established Nagalpur town.
  • He constructed temples like Hazara and Vitalaswami.
  • During his time, the Portuguese traveler 'Domingo Paes' traveled to the Vijayanagara empire.
  • Babur in his autobiography described Krishnadeva Raya as the most powerful ruler of India.

Vijayanagara Empire:

  • Vijayanagara Empire was established by Harihara and Bukka in 1336 AD.
  • This lineage was called Sangam Dynasty as their father's name was Sangam.
  • Harihara and Bukka had taken learning from their teacher(Guru) Vidyaranya and famous mentor of the Vedas, Sayan, to establish Vijayanagara.

Sangam Dynasty

  • Harihara I sent two forces in 1352 -53AD to conquer Madurai - one led by Kumar Saval and the other led by Kumara Kampana.
  • Harihara II (1377-1404 AD) sat on the throne in 1377.
  • He won the states of Kanara, Mysore, Trichinapalli, Kanchi, etc, and collected the revenue from the king of Sri Lanka.
  • The biggest success of Harihara II was to capture Belgaum and Goa of the Bahamani state in the west.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 147

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The famous Hazara temple of Vijayanagara was during the reign of:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 147

The famous Hazara Temple of Vijayanagara was built in the reign of Krishnadeva Raya.
Tuluva dynasty:
Krishnadeva Raya (1509-1529 AD):

  • Krishnadeva Raya fought the battle of Golconda with Sultan Quli Qutb Shah of Golconda.
  • The reign of Krishnadeva Raya is considered to be a classical era of literature in Vijayanagara.
  • Eight Telugu poets of his court were regarded as Ashtadiggajas.
  • His reign was called the golden age of Telugu literature.
  • Krishnadeva Raya had assumed the title of 'Andhra Bhoj'.
  • He composed 'Amuktamalyad', which is one of the five epics of the Telugu language.
  • He established Nagalpur town.
  • He constructed temples like Hazara and Vitalaswami.
  • During his time, the Portuguese traveler 'Domingo Paes' traveled to the Vijayanagara empire.
  • Babur in his autobiography described Krishnadeva Raya as the most powerful ruler of India.

Devaraya II(1422-46):

  • Persian ambassador Abdur Razzaq came to Vijayanagara during the reign of Devaraya II.
  • The translation of Mahabharata in Telugu was started by Nannayan in the 11th century, which was completed by Tikkan in the 13th century and again by the Yerrann in the 14th century.
  • These three are famous as 'Kavithrayi' of Telugu literature.

Sangam Dynasty

  • Harihara I sent two forces in 1352 -53AD to conquer Madurai - one led by Kumar Saval and the other led by Kumara Kampana.
  • Harihara II (1377-1404 AD) sat on the throne in 1377.
  • He won the states of Kanara, Mysore, Trichinapalli, Kanchi, etc, and collected the revenue from the king of Sri Lanka.
  • The biggest success of Harihara II was to capture Belgaum and Goa of the Bahamani state in the west.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 148

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Battle that laid the foundation of Muslim domination in India Was :

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 148

The second battle of Tarain laid the foundation of Muslim domination in India.

  • It was fought between Muhammad Ghori and the Rajput army of Prithviraj Chauhan in 1192 AD and Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated.

Muhammad Ghori (1149 – 1206)

  • He was the Sultan of the Ghurid Empire.
  • He is credited with laying the foundation of Muslim rule in the Indian subcontinent, which lasted for several centuries.
  • After consolidating his rule in the North-West domain Muhammad of Ghor wishes to invade the heart of Northern India.
    In 1191 CE, he was defeated by a united Rajput Confederacy led by Prithviraj Chauhan in the First Battle of Tarain.
    He was the third Muslim ruler to rule India.

First Battle of Tarain (1191 A.D.)

  • In the First Battle of Tarain (near Tanwar) in 1191 A.D. Muhammad of Ghori was defeated by Prithviraj.

Second Battle of Tarain (1192 A.D.)

  • Muhammad of Ghori defeated Prithviraj in the second battle.
  • On his return to Ghor, Ghori made preparations to strike again.
  • The Rajput army was eventually defeated and Prithviraj was taken prisoner and subsequently executed.
  • Qutb-ud-din Aibak was assisted in the battle and defeated Prithviraj as a prisoner and to death.
  • For the first time, Turkish rule began with The Second Battle of Tarain.
  • Muhammad of Ghori appointed Qutb-ud-din Aibak as the commander.

The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi dynasty.

  • It took place in North India and marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Sultanate.
  • This was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowder firearms and field artillery in the Indian subcontinent which were introduced by Mughals in this battle.

The Second Battle of Panipat was fought on 5 November 1556, between Hem Chandra Vikramaditya and the forces of the Mughal Emperor Akbar.

  • Hemu had conquered the states of Delhi and Agra a few weeks earlier by defeating the Mughal forces of Akbar, led by Tardi Beg Khan at the Battle of Delhi and proclaimed himself Raja Vikramaditya at a coronation in Purana Quila in Delhi.
  • Akbar and his guardian Bairam Khan who, after learning of the loss of Agra and Delhi, marched to Panipat to reclaim the lost territories.

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 149

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Consider the following statements regarding the responsibilities of the Karori during the Mughal empire:

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 149

In the Mughal period the Karori, assisted by a treasure, a surveyor, and other technical staff, was responsible for measuring the land of the village.
Mughal Administration: Key Features & Structure:

  • The Mughal empire was divided into Subas which were further subdivided into Sarkar, Pargana, and Gram.
  • There were 15 Subas (provinces) during Akbar's reigns, which later increased to 20 under the Aurangzeb’s reign.
  • The Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system.
  • The term "Mansab" indicates the rank of the holder. Mansabdari was both civil and military.
  • During the Mughal administration, there were 3 methods of revenue collection i.e. Kankut, Rai, And Zabti.
  • The Mughals built an Empire with not only great political might but also a firm administrative setup that provided strength to the Empire.
  • From the centralization of power to creating conducive conditions for economic and cultural growth, the Mughals looked at administrative matters with great seriousness and precision.

Central Administration:

  • Enjoying absolute power, the Emperor was always the central administrative authority.
  • The state had four main departments and the four main officers of the central government were Diwan; Mir Bakshi; Mir Saman; and Sadr.
  • The Diwan (also called the Wazir or chief minister), held the primary position and looked after revenue and finance, but kept an overview of all matters of expenditure and related departments recording all imperial orders and assigning duties and expenses to district faujdars.
  • Mir Bakshi was responsible for the military pay and accounts and related duties.
  • Paymaster and the recruitment officer of soldiers, a listing of Mansabdars, and important officials.
  • Khan-i-Saman were responsible for imperial household chores.
  • He maintaining records and requirements of the state karkhanas, stores, order, interactions, and internal relations.
  • The Sadr was the head of religious donations and contributions.
  • He also looked after education and imperial alms.
  • Sadr acted as Chief Qazi before Shah Jahan, Aurangzeb divided these two offices and allotted two separate persons for these posts.
  • Occasionally a dignitary superior to the wazir and other ministers was also appointed called the vakil. He acted as the deputy of the sultanate.

Revenue Administration:

  • Land revenue was the major source of income.
  • Akbar instituted Dahsala/Bandobast Arazi/the Zabti system.
  • Under which, the average produce of different crops and the average prices from the last ten years were calculated.
  • One-third of the average was the share of the state.
  • Land revenue was fixed considering both, continuity and productivity of cultivation.
  • Polaj (land continually cultivated), Parti (fallow lands for a year) paid full prices when under cultivation.
  • After assessing land revenue in kind, the value was converted into cash using a price list or Dastur-ul-Amal, prepared at the regional level for various food crops.
  • Each cultivator got a title for landholding or Patta and Qubuliyat (deed of the agreement by which he pays state revenue).

BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 150

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Which Mughal emperor shifted the capital from Agra to Delhi?

Detailed Solution for BPSC Practice Test- 7 - Question 150

  • The Mughal emperor Shah Jahan shifted the capital from Agra to Delhi.
  • Shah Jahan had built the city of Shahjahanabad on the banks of the Yamuna River in Delhi and built the Red Fort of Delhi for himself. Shah Jahan died in 1666 in the Agra Fort.
  • Akbar was born as Abu-Fal Jalal-ud-Din Muhammad Akbar on October 15, 1542. When Akbar succeeded his father Humayun in 1556, he was 13 years old.

Important facts

  • Shah Jahan 1627-1657 AD
  • Shah Jahan was the successor of Jahangir.
  • His childhood name was Khurram.
  • His mother's name was Jagat Gosain.
  • Khurram was married to Arjumand Bano Begum, the daughter of Asaf Khan, to whom Shah Jahan bestowed the title of Malika-e-Zamani.
  • On February 4, 1628, Shah Jahan ascended the throne in Agra by receiving the title of Abul Muzaffar Shahabuddin Muhammad Sahib Kiran-e-Sani.
  • Shah Jahan conferred the title of Wazir to Asaf Khan and Khankhana to Mahavat Khan.

Cultural aspects

  • The Peaco*ck Throne was built by Shah Jahan, its main artist was Bey Badal Khan.
  • Behind the emperor's throne was a series of patri-dura inlaid work, which depicts the mythological Greek god Arphias playing the harp.
  • The reign of Shah Jahan is called the Golden Age of Architecture.
  • The major buildings built by Shah Jahan are – Lala Fort of Delhi, Deewane Mango, Deewane Khas, Jama Masjid of Delhi, Moti Masjid of Agra, Taj Mahal and Sheesh Mahal in Lahore Fort etc.
  • The main painters of Shah Jahan's court were Muhammad Fakir and Mir Hasim.

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